71st BPSC Prelims Answer Key (Set H)

• 23 Sep 2025

The Bihar Public Service Commission (BPSC) successfully conducted the 71st Combined (Preliminary) Competitive Examination on 13th September 2025. Lakhs of aspirants appeared for the examination across various centers in Bihar. Candidates are now eagerly searching for the answer key to assess their performance.

Here, at Drishti IAS, our team of experts has meticulously prepared the most accurate and reliable answer key for the 71st BPSC Prelims Question Paper Set H. You can cross-reference your answers and calculate your estimated score using the detailed solutions provided below.

1.  According to the UNDP Human Development Index (HDI) Report 2025, life expectancy in India increased from 58.6 years in 1990 to how many years in 2023?

(A) 72 years
(B) 73 years
(C) 74 years
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• India ranked 130th out of 193 countries in the 2025 Human Development Report by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). The report highlights a rise in life expectancy from 58.6 years in 1990 to a record 72 years in 2023, reflecting a robust post-pandemic recovery.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.  

2. In which city was the AI Action Summit held in February 2025?

(A) Bengaluru
(B) Paris
(C) Rome
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

The Prime Minister (PM) of India visited France to co-chair the Paris Artificial Intelligence (AI) Action Summit 2025.  

3. At the 96th Academy Awards (2024), Emma Stone won the Oscar for Actress in a Leading Role for her performance in which film?

(A) La La Land
(B) Poor Things
(C) The Favourite
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• Emma Stone claimed her second Academy Award, winning the Best Actress trophy for her role as Bella - a woman revived from the dead, with the mind of a little girl in Yorgos Lanthimos’ dark comedy, Poor Things.
• 96th Academy Awards, also known as Oscar Awards 2024, are the biggest and most prestigious awards in the world. It aims to honor the art and artists of the world of cinema from all across the globe. It is organized by the Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences (AMPAS).

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

4. Which Gujarati film won the 70th National Film Award for Best Feature Film promoting national, social and environmental values?

(A) Hellaro
(B) Chhello Show
(C) Kutch Express
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• In the 70th National Film Award the Gujarati film KUTCH EXPRESS received the award in Best Feature Film Promoting National, Social and Environmental Values. The film is directed by Viral Shah.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

5. Which of the following individuals or organisations was a recipient of the Ramon Magsaysay Award 2024?

(A) Phuntsho, Karma
(B) Rural Doctors Movement
(C) Miyazaki Hayao
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

• The Ramon Magsaysay Awards Foundation has unveiled the five distinguished recipients of this year’s prestigious awards, widely regarded as Asia’ equivalent of the Nobel Prize.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer. 

6. Which of the following statements are true about Akashteer?

(A) Akashteer is the core of the Indian Army's Air Defence (AAD) system.
(B) It seamlessly integrates India's larger C4ISR.
(C) It reflects a strategic shift from passive defence to proactive retaliation.
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

• Akashteer is at the core of the Indian Army's air defence (AAD) system. It is real-time, automated air defence warfare.
• About Akashteer:
  • Akashteer is part of the broader C4ISR (Command, Control, Communications, Computers, Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance) framework, working in coordination with other systems.
  • It significantly boosts automation, situational awareness, and response speed, enabling proactive and not just passive responses to aerial threats.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

7. Which of the following defence platforms are part of India's growing indigenous military ecosystem supported by the Make in India initiative?

(A) F-35 Lightning II
(B) Main Battle Tank (MBT) Arjun
(C) Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System (ATAGS)
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

• The F-35 Lightning II is a stealthy, supersonic, multirole fighter designed to meet the requirements of the United States and allied defense forces worldwide.
• The Main Battle Tank (MBT) Arjun and  Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System (ATAGS) both are indigenous. MBT is developed by DRDO, ATAGS  is jointly developed by DRDO and private Indian companies like Tata Advanced Systems and Bharat Forge.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

8. Which day is observed as Holocaust Memorial Day?

(A) January 15
(B) January 27
(C) February 10
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• Holocaust Memorial Day is observed on January 27th to honor the millions of people who were killed during the Nazi regime's persecution of various groups. The day also acknowledges more recent genocides recognized by the UK government, including the genocide in Darfur.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

9. What is the title of the book by Banu Mushtaq that won the 2025 International Booker Prize?

(A) Light of the Heart
(B) Heart Lamp
(C) Soul Lantern
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• Banu Mushtaq won the 2025 International Booker Prize for her short story collection Heart Lamp, translated from Kannada by Deepa Bhasthi.
• This achievement marks the first time a short story collection has received the £50,000 award and the first recognition of Kannada literature on this prestigious global platform.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

10. According to the Indus Waters Treaty, the three eastern rivers are allocated to India. Which of the following is not one of them?

(A) Jhelum
(B) Ravi
(C) Sutlej
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• The Indus Waters Treaty, signed on September 19, 1960, between India and Pakistan, with the World Bank acting as a mediator.
• The treaty sets out a mechanism for cooperation and information exchange between the two sides on the use of the water of the Indus River and its five tributaries Sutlej, Beas, Ravi, Jhelum, and Chenab. 

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

11. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about Capability Poverty Measure (CPM) developed by the UNDP?

1) CPM includes child malnutrition as a proxy for lack of health and nourishment.
2) Female illiteracy is included to reflect deprivation in education and knowledge.
3) It considers male illiteracy as a key indicator of capability poverty.
4) It includes lack of access to clean drinking water as an important indicator of capability poverty.

 Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 1
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• Capability Poverty Measure (CPM) developed by the UNDP considers the lack of three basic capabilities.
  • Lack of being well nourished and healthy is represented by the proportion of children under five years who are underweight.
  • Lack of capability for healthy reproduction shown by the proportion of births unattended by trained personnel.
  • Lack of capability to be educated and knowledgeable, represented by female illiteracy.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer. 

12. Which of the following is not among the top ten principal commodities of India's export during April-September 2024-25?

(A) Petroleum Products
(B) Iron and Steel
(C) Basmati Rice
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• As per the Provisional Estimates, the top ten principal commodities of export during April-August 2024-25 constituting 45.35% of India’s total export are:
  • Petroleum Products (17.80%)
  • Drug Formulations, Biological
  • Telecom Instruments (4.62%)
  • Pearl Precious, Semiprecious Stones (3.66%)
  • Electric Machinery and Equipment (3.19%)
  • Gold and Other Precious Metal Jewellery
  • Products of Iron and Steel (2.23%)
  • Iron and Steel (2.16%)
  • Rmg Cotton Incl Accessories (2.08%)
  • Motor Vehicle/Cars (2.02%)

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer. 

13. According to India State of Forest Report 2023 (ISFR 2023):

(A) The total forest and tree cover of the country is 15% of the geographical area of the country.
(B) Top three states having largest recorded forest area (RFA) are Jharkhand, Andaman & Nicobar and Manipur.
(C) The maximum tree cover has been found in the State of Maharashtra, followed by Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh. 
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• The Ministry for Environment, Forest and Climate Change released the 18th India State of Forest Report 2023. The total forest and tree cover of the country is 8,27,356.95 km2 which is 25.17% of the geographical area (GA) of the country.
• Area wise top three states having largest forest cover are Madhya Pradesh followed by Arunachal Pradesh and Chhattisgarh (55,812 sq km).
• The maximum tree cover has been found in the State of Maharashtra, followed by Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

14. Which of the following countries had greater share than India in the global services export in 2023?

(A) Russia
(B) Ireland
(C) Indonesia
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• India’s share in global services exports has been steadily rising for the last two decades. India ranks seventh globally, representing a 4.3 per cent share in the global services export. 
• In 2023, the United States led global services exports with a dominant 13 per cent share, followed by the United Kingdom with 7.4 per cent, Germany with 5.5 per cent and Ireland.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

15. Which of the following statement/s is/ are NOT CORRECT about the U-WIN portal of the Ministry of Health and Family welfare?

(A) It provides QR-based e-vaccination certificates
(B) It facilitates the creation of Ayushman Bharat HealthAccounts (ABHA) for parents and children.
(C) The portal is accessible in 11 regional languages
(D) None of the above

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

• U-WIN is a citizen-centric digital platform that captures all vaccination events of all pregnant women and children under Universal Immunization Programme (UIP).

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

16. Which organization jointly developed the National Urban Innovation Stack (NUIS) Digital Blueprint with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA)?

(A) Ministry of Electronics and IT
(B) National Institute of Urban Affairs
(C) NITI Aayog
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) jointly developed the National Urban Innovation Stack (NUIS) Digital Blueprint with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). It aims to foster urban innovation and enhance the efficiency of urban management across cities.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

17. Which state had the highest constructed road length under Bharatmala Pariyojana as of 31st October 2024?

(A) Rajasthan
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• Bharatmala Pariyojana was approved by the Government of India in 2017 covering a length of 34,800 km to improve connectivity and reduce logistic cost in the country.
• As of 31st October 2024, Rajasthan (2,241 km)  recorded the highest constructed road length under Bharatmala Pariyojana.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

18. Before the launch of Kisan Rin Portal (KRP), farmers used to submit manual claims under the Interest Subvention and Prompt Repayment Incentive schemes to which of the following institution/s?

(A) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare and NABARD
(B) Reserve Bank of India and NABARD
(C) National Payments Corporation of India and Reserve Bank of India
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• Before the launch of Kisan Rin Portal (KRP), farmers used to submit manual claims under the Interest Subvention and Prompt Repayment Incentive schemes to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare and NABARD. 
• Kisan Rin Portal (KRP) was launched in 2023 to track interest subvention claims digitally, ensuring faster disbursement, greater transparency, and accountability, benefiting both farmers and banks.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

19. India’s foreign exchange reserves:

(A)  Increased to around USD 640 billion as of the end of December 2024
(B)  Are seventh largest in the world
(C)  Decreased caused by a BoP deficit of around USD 24 billion in 2024
(D)  More than one of the above

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• As per the Economic survey 2024- 25, as of December 2024, India’s foreign exchange reserves were USD 640.3 billion, making it the 4th largest globally after China, Japan, and Switzerland.
• According to the RBI data India’s Balance of Payments during the Fourth Quarter (January-March) of 2024-25 was USD 23.3 billion (0.6 per cent of GDP).

20. Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

As per NFHS-5 data, which of the following state(s) recorded less than 6% of the population as multidimensionally poor in 2019-20?

(A) Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

• The National Family Health Survey (NFHS) is a large-scale, multi-round survey conducted in a representative sample of households throughout India.
  • Five rounds of the survey have been conducted since the first survey in 1992-93.
• According to the NFHS-5 data (2019-21), Himachal Pradesh has a poverty rate of 4.93%, and Jammu and Kashmir has a poverty rate of 4.8%.
  • These states are known for their better performance in various health and socio-economic indicators, with less than 6% of the population being multidimensionally poor.   

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

21. Match List-I with List-II

List-I	List-II
a) Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme	1) Introduced in the Union Budget for 2023-24
b) Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI)	2) Aims to reduce emissions in energy-intensive industries
c) The Lifestyle for Environment (LIFE) initiative	3) Launched in 2019 as a national-level strategy
d) National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)	4) Launched at COP26 in Glasgow in November 2021

       a   b   c d

 (A)   1   3   2   4
  (B)  3   4   1   2
 (C)   2   1   4  3
 (D) More than one of the above

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

a)   Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme: Aims to reduce emissions in energy-intensive industries.

b)   Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI): Introduced in the Union Budget for 2023-24.

c)   The Lifestyle for Environment (LIFE) initiative: Launched at COP26 in Glasgow in November 2021.

d) National Clean Air Programme (NCAP): Launched in 2019 as a national-level strategy.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

22. According to Annual PLFS 2023-24 report:

(A) There is greater increase in Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) of rural females as compared to urban females since 2021-22
(B) Among the 36 states and union territories, 90% states have a Workforce Participation Rate (WPR) (for all ages) below the national average of 43.7 percent
(C) The share of female workers in mj agriculture has decreased significantly from 2017-18 to 2023-24
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) is defined as the percentage of persons in the labour force (i.e. working or seeking or available for work) in the population.
  • In rural areas, LFPR increased from 48.9% in 2017-18 to 58.9% in 2023-24 while for urban areas it increased from 47.1% to 50.8%.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

23. Which of the following was NOT the outcome of Science, Technology and Innovation Policy 2020?

(A) One nation, one subscription
(B) Research and Innovation Excellence Frameworks (RIEF)
(C) Atal Innovation Mission
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) was launched earlier in 2016 and was not a direct outcome of the Science, Technology and Innovation Policy 2020. One nation, one subscription and Research and Innovation Excellence Frameworks (RIEF), are part of the initiatives introduced by the 2020 policy.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

24. Share of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises in the country's Gross Value Added (GVA) has increased from ____ in 2020-21 to ____ in 2022-23.
(A) 30.3%, 35.6%
(B) 27.3%, 30.1%
(C) 35.1%, 38.2%
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• As per the latest information received from the Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation, the share of MSME Gross Value Added (GVA) in all India Gross Domestic Product (GDP) increased from 27.3% in 2020-21 to 30.1% in 2022-23, highlighting its growing importance in national economic output.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

25. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding the Indian cement industry?

1) Around 87% of India's cement industry is concentrated in a few major states like Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
2) India is the largest producer of cement in the world.
3) Most cement plants in India are located far from raw material sources and near to the ports to support exports.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 1 and 3
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• According to Economic Survey 2024- 25 around 87% of India's cement industry is concentrated in a few major states like Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh, where key cement plants are located.India is the second-largest producer of cement in the world.
• Most of the cement plants in India are located near the raw material sources and not necessarily near the ports.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

26. What is the primary objective of Bihar's Mission Daksh?

(A) To increase school enrolment in primary schools in rural areas.
(B) To provide vocational training to teachers at senior-secondary level.
(C) To offer personalised mentoring for lagging students to reach grade-level competencies.
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• DAKSH (Dynamic Approach for Knowledge and Skill) aims at offering special Hindi, Mathematics and English classes to weak students of classes 3-8 across the state. A teacher will teach only five students, who cannot read and write Hindi and English fluently and are not good at basic Mathematics offering personalised mentoring.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer. 

27. Which of the following is NOT one of the components under the YUVA framework of the Bihar Startup Policy 2022?

(A) Vibrancy in the education system
(B) Regulatory enablers for support
(C) International market expansion schemes
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (C)

Explanation: 

• The YUVA framework of the Bihar Startup Policy 2022 focuses on four key components including vibrancy in the education system and regulatory enablers for support, but international market expansion schemes is not its component. 

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

28. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about Bihar's economic performance in 2023-24?

(A) Bihar's per capita GSDP at current prices increased by 12.8% in 2023-24 over the previous year.
(B) The estimated share of the tertiary sector in Bihar's GSVA (constant prices) in 2023-24 was 58.6%.
(C) The Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) formed 4.6% of GSDP at current prices in 2023-24.
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

• According to the Economic Survey 2024-25:
  • Bihar's per capita GSDP at current prices increased by 12.8% in 2023-24.
    
  • The estimated share of the tertiary sector in Bihar's GSVA (constant prices) for 2023-24 was 58.6%.
    
  • The Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) accounted for 4.6% of GSDP at current prices in 2023-24.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer. 

29. Consider the following statements:

1) The proportion of the young population (0-19 years) in Bihar is projected to decline significantly by 2041.
2) Bihar's demographic dividend is expected to peak around 2041.
3) The elderly population (60+ years) in Bihar is expected to rise more sharply than in India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 1 and 3 are correct
(C) 2 and 3 are correct
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• The Economic Survey projects that the share of Indians above 60 will rise from 8.6% in 2011 to 15.9% by 2041. In Bihar, one of the country’s youngest states demographically, the proportion is expected to grow from 7.4% in 2011 to 11.6% by 2041.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

30. According to PLFS 2023-24, which of the following statements best describe the nature of employment among women in Bihar?

(A) Most women are employed in formal, regular wage jobs.
(B) The majority of women are self-employed, often serving as helpers in household enterprises.
(C) Majority of women were engaged in secondary sector
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• According to PLFS ( Periodic Labour Force Survey) 2023- 24 a very large proportion of working women in Bihar are self-employed—as high as 83.7%.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

31. The power to recruit the Secretarial staff of the House of the People is vested in:

(A) Union Public Service Commission
(B) Prime Minister's Office (PMO)
(C) Staff Selection Commission
(D) President after consultation with the Speaker of the House of the People.

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

• The Secretarial staff of the Lok Sabha (House of the People) are recruited under the authority of the President of India, but the recruitment is made after consultation with the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

32. Attorney General of India:

(A) He gives advice to the President on legal matters
(B) Is not entitled of audience except the Supreme Court
(C) Cannot participate in the proceedings in the House of Parliament
(D) Is a whole time counsel for the government

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• The Attorney General of India (AGI) is the highest law officer of the country, appointed under Article 76 of the Constitution.
• About Attorney General:
  
  • His primary duty is to advise the Government of India and the President on legal matters.
  • He has the right of audience in all courts in India (not just the Supreme Court)
  • He can participate in the proceedings of Parliament, though without voting rights.
  • He is not a whole-time counsel for the government and can take up private briefs (with restrictions).

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

33. Consider the following subjects belonging to different lists of the constitution of India. Which of the following subjects belong to the concurrent list?

1) Protection of wildlife.
2) Income on Agriculture
3) Tax on Electricity consumption or sale
4) Price control

Out of these:

(A) 2 and 3 are correct
(B) 1 and 4 are correct
(C) Only 4 is correct
(D) Only 2 is correct

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• "Protection of wildlife and price control are included in the Concurrent List under Article 246(3) of the Constitution, which allows both Parliament and State Legislatures to make laws on these subjects.
• The  Income on Agriculture and Tax on Electricity consumption or sale is part of the State List.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

34. Which of the following Directive Principles do not follow Gandhian Principles?

1) Organization of Village Panchayats
2) Common Civil Code
3) Promotion of cottage Industry in rural areas
4) Right to work

(A) Only 2
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1 and 3

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• Article 44 of Directive Principles deals with the Common Civil Code; it is a liberal- intellectual principle. Whereas Right to Work under article 41 is a socialistic principle.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

35. Which pair is not correctly matched?

(A) Forms of oath - 3rd schedule
(B) Allocation of seats in the council of state - 4th schedule
(C) Administration of scheduled areas - 6th schedule
(D) Union List - 7th schedule

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• The 6th Schedule deals with the administration of Tribal Areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. It provides for Autonomous District Councils and Regional Councils with legislative, judicial, and financial powers.
• The "Administration of scheduled areas" refers to a set of provisions within the Indian Constitution (primarily Article 244 and the Fifth Schedule) that govern the governance of specific geographical regions called Scheduled Areas.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

36. Consider the following statements about Central Government:

1) Ministries and Departments are formed by the Prime Minister with consultation of the Cabinet Secretary.
2) Every Minister is allocated a Ministry by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.

Out of these:

(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• The Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 is made by the President of India under Article 77 of the Constitution for the allocation of business of the Government of India.
  • The Ministries/Departments of the Government of India are created by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister under these Rules.
• Every Minister is allocated a ministry by the President, but this is done on the advice of the Prime Minister, as per Article 75 of the Constitution of India.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer. 

37. What is true about the proceedings of the State Legislature?

(A) Advocate General has right to vote
(B) Business in the legislature shall be transacted only in the official language of the state or in Hindi or in English.
(C) It can discuss the conduct of any judge of the High Court also
(D) Validity of proceedings shall be called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

In the State Legislature the business shall  be transacted only in the official language of the state or in Hindi or in English.In the State Legislature, the language used for debates, discussions, and official business is governed by Article 210 of the Constitution of India.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

38. The constitution of India provides for reasonable restrictions on Fundamental Rights but reasonableness must keep in mind that:

1) The interest of the general public is safeguarded
2) Prevailing social value and also social needs are not bar
3) Directive principles can be bypassed
4) Collective good is not greater

Out of these:

(A) 2 and 3 are correct
(B) 1 and 2 are correct
(C) Only 4 is correct
(D) Only 1 is correct

Answer: (D)

• Part III of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights. Reasonable restrictions on Fundamental Rights under the Constitution must ensure the interest of the general public is safeguarded.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer. 

39. Who among the following determines the qualification which shall be requisite for appointment as member of the finance commission?

(A) Council of Ministers
(B) President of India
(C) Parliament by act
(D) Union Cabinet

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• The Finance Commission is constituted under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution. According to Article 280(2) the Parliament may by law determine the qualifications of members of the Finance Commission and the manner in which they shall be selected.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

40. Consider the following statements:

1) The summoning of the House means convocation
2) Prorogation ends a session
3) Dissolution terminates a House
4) Prorogation of a session can be effected by the leader of the House alone

Out of these which is not true?

(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 3.
(C) Only 2
(D) Only 4

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

• Summoning of the House refers to the formal calling of the Parliament or a legislative house to meet for a session. According to Article 85 of the Indian Constitution, this power lies exclusively with the President of India, who summons each House to meet at such times and places as he thinks fit.
• Prorogation, in contrast, is the formal ending of a parliamentary session. This power also rests solely with the President under Article 85. When a session is prorogued, all proceedings of the current session are suspended until the next session is summoned.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

41. Who is empowered to review the financial position of the Panchayats?

(A) Chairman of Block Committee
(B) Chief Minister
(C) Chairman of District Council
(D) Finance Commission constituted by the Governor

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

• The 73rd Amendment of 1992 added Part IX ("The Panchayats") to the Constitution, covering Articles 243 to 243(O), and introduced the Eleventh Schedule with 29 Panchayat functions. According to Article 243-I, the Governor of each state must form a State Finance Commission every five years to assess the financial status of Panchayats.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

42. The Atmanirbhar Bharat Scheme announced by the Government helps in:

1) Enhancing India's manufacturing capabilities and exports across the industries
2) Incentivizing foreign investments for domestic production

Out of these:

(A) 1 is correct
(B) 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• The Atmanirbhar Bharat (Self-Reliant India) initiative aims to enhance India’s manufacturing capabilities and exports by supporting industries, MSMEs, and infrastructure development. It also aims to attract and incentivize foreign investments to promote domestic production and reduce import dependence.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer. 

43. What is the main purpose of Panchayati Raj?

(A) To increase employment
(B) To increase agriculture production
(C) To increase people's political awareness
(D) To enable people to participate in development administration

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

• The main purpose of the Panchayati Raj system is to decentralize power and bring democratic governance to the grassroots level, allowing local people to participate directly in planning and implementation of development programs.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

44. What is true about Censure Motion?

(A) It is different from the No-confidence motion
(B) It is not different from No-confidence motion
(C) It is not mandatory to mention the reasons in this motion
(D) Permission of the House is not essential to present it

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• A Censure Motion is a formal expression of disapproval against the policies or actions of the Council of Ministers or a particular minister. Whereas, a No-confidence Motion is specifically aimed at removing the government by expressing that the House no longer has confidence in it.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

45. Which one of the following subjects fall within the jurisdiction of both the High Court and Supreme Court?

(A) Dispute among States
(B) Dispute between Centre and State
(C) Protection of fundamental rights
(D) Protection from the violation of the constitution

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• Both the Supreme Court (under Article 32) and High Courts (under Article 226) have the jurisdiction to protect Fundamental Rights under the Constitution of India.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

46. Which Indian leader for the first time used the 'safety-valve theory' to attack the Moderates in the Congress?

(A) Lala Lajpat Rai
(B) Bipin Chandra Pal
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Dadabhai Naoroji

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• The ‘Safety-valve theory’was first articulated by Lala Lajpat Rai. It suggested that the Indian National Congress was deliberately created by the British to provide a harmless outlet (a safety-valve) for Indian political aspirations, preventing a violent revolt.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

47. At which Viceroy was a bomb thrown on the occasion of his state entry into Delhi?

(A) Lord Minto
(B) Lord Curzon
(C) Lord Hardinge
(D) Lord Wavell

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• On 23 December 1912, during the state entry of Lord Hardinge (the newly appointed Viceroy of India) into Delhi, a bomb was thrown at his elephant. The bomb was thrown by members of the Revolutionary Party, associated with the Ghadar Movement, particularly Rash Behari Bose and others.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

48. Who got an opportunity to become Professor of Indian Philosophy in the University of California in 1911?

(A) Virendranath Chattopadhyay
(B) Sohan Singh Bhakna
(C) Har Dayal
(D) Shyamji Krishna Varma

Answer:  (C)

Explanation:

• In 1911, Har Dayal, an Indian revolutionary and scholar, was appointed as a Professor of Indian Philosophy at the ii. He was known for his deep knowledge of Sanskrit and Indian philosophical systems.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

49. Name the Principal of M.A.O. College, Aligarh, who encouraged Muslim Communalism in the last decades of the 19th Century?

(A) Minto
(B) Dunlop Smith
(C) William Morris
(D) Theodore Beck

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

• Theodore Beck, a British educationist and close associate of Sir Syed Ahmed Khan, served as Principal of M.A.O. College (Aligarh) from 1883 to 1899. While promoting Western education among Muslims, he also encouraged separatist political thinking, contributing to the rise of Muslim communalism in the late 19th century.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

50. 'The Young India', a Nationalist paper, was started by

(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Annie Besant
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• "Young India" was a weekly journal published by Mahatma Gandhi from 1919 to 1932. It was written in English and served as a platform for Gandhi to express his views on non-violence, civil disobedience, swaraj, and various national and international issues.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

51. Maginot Line exists between which countries?

(A) France & Germany
(B) U.S.A. & Canada
(C) Namibia and Angola
(D) South Korea & North Korea

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• The Maginot Line was a line of fortifications built by France along its eastern border with Germany (and partly with Luxembourg) after World War I. Its purpose was to deter a German invasion and give France time to mobilize its forces.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

52. Strait of Hormuz connects

(A) Red sea to Gulf of Aden
(B) The Persian Gulf to Gulf of Oman
(C) Red sea to Indian Ocean
(D) Mediterranean sea to Red sea 

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow waterway that links the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman and further to the Arabian Sea. It is one of the world’s most strategic chokepoints, as a significant proportion of global oil trade passes through it.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

53. Where is "Ground Zero"?

(A) New York
(B) Greenwich
(C) Indira Point
(D) Sriharikota

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• "Ground Zero" refers to the site of the World Trade Center in New York City, which was destroyed during the 11th September 2001 terrorist attacks.
• The term has since become synonymous with the location where the twin towers once stood and is now the site of the 9/11 Memorial and Museum.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

54. Which of the following Isthmuses has been known as the 'Devil's Neck'?

(A) Kra Isthmuses
(B) Isthmuses of Panama
(C) Karelian Isthmuses
(D) Isthmuses of Corinth

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• The Kra Isthmus is referred to as the 'Devil's Neck'. The Kra Isthmus, located on the Malay Peninsula in Thailand, has gained strategic importance due to a proposed transit artery that could connect the Andaman Sea and the Gulf of Thailand.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

55. Ladang refers to -

(A) Plantation Agriculture
(B) Shifting Agriculture
(C) Subsistence type of Agriculture
(D) Dry forming

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• Ladang refers to shifting agriculture, also called slash-and-burn cultivation, practiced in parts of Malaysia and Indonesia. Farmers clear a patch of forest, burn the vegetation, and cultivate crops for a few years until soil fertility declines.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

56. Which is the largest river Island in the world?

(A) Majuli Island
(B) Srirangam Island
(C) Bhavani Island
(D) Agatti Island

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• Majuli Island, located in the Brahmaputra River in Assam (India), is the largest river island in the world. It covers an area of around 352 sq. km (though it has reduced due to erosion over time).

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

57. The second largest river basin of India is -

(A) Narmada river basin
(B) Mahanadi river basin
(C) Godavari river basin
(D) Kaveri river basin

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• The Godavari, India’s longest peninsular river at 1,465 km. It  is the second-largest river basin, spanning Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Karnataka, and Telangana. Known as the "Dakshina Ganga," it supports a large agrarian population.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

58. Which of the following is the place of confluence of the Alaknanda and Bhagirathi?

(A) Karnaprayag
(B) Vishnuprayag
(C) Rudraprayag
(D) Devprayag

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

• The Ganga is formed at Devprayag in Uttarakhand, where the Alaknanda and Bhagirathi rivers meet. Other significant confluences include Vishnuprayag (Alaknanda and Dhauliganga), Karnaprayag (Alaknanda and Pindar), and Rudraprayag (Alaknanda and Mandakini).

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

59. The two volcanic Islands in the Indian Territory are -

(A) Bitra and Kavaratti
(B) Kavaratti and New Moore
(C) Pamban and Barren
(D) Narcondam and Barren

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

• The volcanic islands in Indian territory are Narcondam and Barren, both located in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Barren Island is famous for its active volcano, the only active one in India.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

60. The art of crafting which item in Meerut has received a GI tag?

(A) Musical Instruments
(B) Sports Goods
(C) Laddoo
(D) Scissors

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

• Meerut Scissors are entirely made from scrap metal and by hand. Manufacturers use ‘kamani’ (spring steel) bought from the railways or automobile industries making the input cost lower than fresh metal stocks at the same time contributing towards recycling of metal waste.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

61. In India the Temperate Forest Research center is in which city?

(A) Ranchi
(B) Shimla
(C) Srinagar
(D) Dehradun

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• The Temperate Forest Research Centre is located at Shimla, Himachal Pradesh. It is aimed at the regeneration of temperate forest, afforestation of cold deserts and forest conservation and ecological rehabilitation in the Himalayan region.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

62. Kanha National Park is established in -

(A) Assam
(B) Uttarakhand
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Maharashtra

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• Kanha National Park, established in 1955, is located in the Mandla and Balaghat districts of Madhya Pradesh. It is one of the largest national parks in central India and forms part of Project Tiger (since 1973).

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

63. 'Loktak' is a

(A) Lake
(B) Valley
(C) River
(D) Mountain series

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• Loktak Lake in Manipur is the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India, known for its phumdis (floating vegetation). It houses the Keibul Lamjao National Park, the world's only floating national park, and is home to the endangered Sangai deer, Manipur’s state animal.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

64. Which of the following parks/sanctuaries come under the project tiger in Bihar?

(A) Valmiki National Park
(B) Udaypur Wildlife Sanctuary
(C) Bhimbandh Wildlife Sanctuary
(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• Valmiki National Park & Tiger Reserve, located in West Champaran district of Bihar, is the only Tiger Reserve in the state under Project Tiger. It forms part of the Terai Arc Landscape, sharing its boundary with Chitwan National Park (Nepal).

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

65. Which of the following is the state animal of Bihar?

(A) Bull
(B) Cow
(C) Buffalo
(D) Horse

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• The state animal of Bihar is the Bull (Gaur or Indian Bison), which is symbolic of strength and agricultural significance in the state.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

66. In which year, Nalanda University was re-established in Bihar?

(A) 2007
(B) 2005
(C) 2008
(D) 2014

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

• In March 2006, former President Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam proposed reviving the ancient Nalanda University during a joint session of the Bihar State Legislative Assembly.
• This idea gained support from various quarters, including the Singapore government, leaders of the East Asia Summit (EAS) member states in January 2007, and at the 4th EAS in Thailand in 2009. Subsequently, the Nalanda University Act, 2010 was passed, and the first batch of students was enrolled in September 2014.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

67. Karmanasa river originates in -

(A) Vaishali District
(B) Kaimur District
(C) Patna District
(D) Bikram District

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• The Karmanasa River originates from the Kaimur Hills in Bihar’s Kaimur District. It is a tributary of the Ganga and flows through Bihar and Uttar Pradesh before joining the Ganga near Chausa (in Buxar district, Bihar).

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

68. Bihar produces _____ % of pyrite of whole India?

(A) 85
(B) 75
(C) 95
(D) 100

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• Bihar is the leading producer of pyrite, holding 95% of the country's resources. The mineral is found primarily in the Rohtas district and is used to produce sulphuric acid and fertilizers. 

Therefore, option is the correct (C) answer.

69. Gold is found in which district of Bihar?

(A) Jamui District
(B) Gaya District
(C) Nalanda District
(D) Bhagalpur District

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• Gold has been traced in the Sono area of Jamui district, Bihar. Geological Survey of India (GSI) studies have confirmed the presence of gold reserves here, making it the only district in Bihar with significant gold potential.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct

70. Most of Bihar comes under which of the following climate types?

(A) Tropical savannah
(B) Subtropical Monsoon
(C) Hot and dry
(D) Hot and Semi Arid

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• Bihar primarily experiences a humid subtropical monsoon climate, featuring hot summers (March–June) with temperatures often exceeding 40°C, heavy rainfall during the Southwest Monsoon (June–September), and cool winters (November–February) with occasional fog.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

71. We apply a force of 200 Newtons on a wooden Box and push it on the floor at constant velocity. The marginal friction force will be:

(A) 200 Newtons
(B) 100 Newtons
(C) 300 Newtons
(D) 400 Newtons

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• When an object moves at constant velocity, the net force acting on it is zero. This means the frictional force is equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to the applied force.
• Since a force of 200 Newtons is applied and the box moves at constant velocity, the frictional force must also be 200 Newtons.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

72. A truck starts from rest down a hill with a constant acceleration. It achieves 400 meters in 20 seconds. If the weight of the truck is 7 tons then what will be the force acting on it?

(A) 12000 Newtons
(B) 11000 Newtons
(C) 13000 Newtons
(D) 14000 Newtons

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

• The truck covers 400 meters in 20 seconds from rest with constant acceleration.
• Given value,  Distance travelled ( s) = 400 metre, Time = 20 sec
• Using the formula:
  •         F= m×a
  •      F= 7000 × a              (1 tons= 1000 kg)
  • Using the equation of motion (S= ut + ½ at²)
    • 400 = ½ a × 400
    •     a= 2 m/s²
    • F= 7000×2 = 14000N
•   So, the force acting on the truck is 14,000 Newtons

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

73. Energy consumed in a home is 250 units then the total energy in Joule will be:

(A) 8× 106
(B) 9× 105 
(C) 9 × 10⁸ joules.
(D) 105

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• 1 unit of electricity = 1 kilowatt-hour (kWh)
• 1 kWh = 1000 watt × 3600 seconds = 3.6 × 10⁶ joules
• Energy consumed = 250 units

= 250 × 3.6 × 10⁶ J
= 9.0 × 10⁸ J

So, the total energy = 9 × 10⁸ joules.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

74. In which medium, the speed of sound is maximum?

(A) Water
(B) Steel
(C) Air
(D) Hydrogen

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• The speed of sound depends on the medium's density and elasticity. It travels fastest in solids, where particles are closely packed, slower in liquids, and slowest in gases, where molecules are farther apart. Thus, sound travels fastest in steel.
• Some examples of speed of sound in different medium;

Air (around 343 m/s), Water (1,480 m/s) and Steel (5,100–5,960 m/s).

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

75. The potential energy of a freely falling body continuously decreases. This is due to which of the following principles?

(A) The principle of conservation of energy is not violated
(B) The principle of conservation of energy is violated
(C) Gravitational force is violated
(D) Gravitational force is not violated

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• The potential energy of a freely falling body decreases as it is converted into kinetic energy due to gravity.
• This process does not violate the principle of conservation of energy, as the total mechanical energy (potential + kinetic) remains constant, assuming no air resistance or other external forces.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

76. A pair of Oxen exerting a force of 140 newton while ploughing the field. The fiel[63] d ploughed is 15 meter long. The work done in ploughing the length of the field is:

(A) 2000 Joules
(B) 1900 Joules
(C) 2100 Joules
(D) 2200 Joules

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

The formula for work done is: 

Work done=Force×Distance×cos⁡(θ)

Therefore, Work done=140×15×cos(0∘)=140×15= 2100Joules

Therefore, option (C) is  the correct answer. 

77. The focal distance of a plane mirror is:

(A) -1 cm
(B) +1 cm
(C) 2 cm
(D) Infinity

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

• A plane mirror has an infinite focal distance. This is because the focal point of a plane mirror is considered to be at an infinite distance, as the reflected rays from a plane mirror never actually converge or diverge. They appear to come from a point behind the mirror at infinity.

Therefore, option (D) is  the correct answer. 

78. Which term in the following does not denote the electric power in electric circuit?

(A)IR2
(B) I²R
(C) VI
(D) V²/R

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• IR² does not represent the power in an electrical circuit. It does not match any standard power formula.
• Whereas, I²R is the power dissipated in a resistor, VI and V²/R is the general formula for electrical power.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

79. In short circuit, the value of electric current in a time circuit:

(A) Do not change
(B) Very low
(C) Increases very high
(D) Continuously changing

Answer:(C)

Explanation:

• In a short circuit, the resistance in the circuit is very low, causing the electric current to increase significantly.
• This sudden surge in current can be extremely high, often leading to damage to the circuit or components if not protected by a fuse or circuit breaker.

Therefore, option (C) is  the correct answer.

80. What is the device to protect equipment from the electric shock?

(A) Generator
(B) Fuse
(C) Motor
(D) Current controller

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• A fuse is a safety device used to protect electrical equipment from damage caused by excessive current (which can lead to electric shocks or fires).
• It works by breaking the circuit when the current exceeds a certain level, preventing further damage.

Therefore, option (B) is  the correct answer.

81. pH value of 0.1 N HCl solution is approximately:

(A) 11.0
(B) 1.0
(C) 10
(D) 2.0

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• The pH of a solution is calculated using the formula: pH = -log[H⁺]
  • For 0.1 N HCl, which is a strong acid and dissociates completely in water, the concentration of H⁺ ions is 0.1 M (moles per liter).
  • pH = -log(0.1) = 1.0. This means the pH value of a 0.1 N HCl solution is approximately 1.0, indicating a strongly acidic solution.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

82. Which Compound is known as night glowing pigment from below?

(A) Copper Sulphide doped zinc oxide
(B) Europium doped strontium aluminate
(C) Barium sulphate doped copper carbonate
(D) Boron oxide doped copper sulphate

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• Europium-doped strontium aluminate is a phosphorescent compound that absorbs light during the day and glows in the dark at night, making it widely used as a night-glowing pigment in paints, watches, and safety signs.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

83. Which Material is used for smart film?

(A) Calcium carbonate
(B) Indium tin oxide
(C) Zinc chloride
(D) Silica

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• Smart films, also known as electrochromic or switchable films, use a thin Indium Tin Oxide (ITO) coating.
• ITO is a transparent conductive oxide that enables the film to toggle between transparent and opaque states when an electric current is applied.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

84. Which metal compound is used for treatment of carcinoma?

(A) Chromium
(B) Platinum
(C) Iron
(D) Chlorine

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• Certain platinum-based compounds, especially cisplatin, are widely used in chemotherapy for the treatment of carcinomas (cancers of epithelial tissues like lungs, bladder, ovaries, and testes).

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

85. Which compound is used in contraceptive pills?

(A) Levonorgestrel
(B) Cholecalciferol
(C) Vanaflexine
(D) Cetirizine

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• Levonorgestrel is a synthetic progesterone hormone used in contraceptive pills (both daily oral contraceptives and emergency “morning-after” pills).
• It prevents pregnancy mainly by inhibiting ovulation, thickening cervical mucus (blocking sperm movement), and altering the uterine lining.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

86. Why is oil not stored in a galvanized iron pot?

(A) It produce toxic compound
(B) It reduced quality of oil
(C) Corrosion observed
(D) All of above

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

• Oil is not stored in a galvanized iron pot  because it produces toxic compounds oil reacts with zinc, forming harmful substances. It also leads to oil quality reduction and corrosion.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

87. Which compound is used for an increase of octane rating?

(A) Tetramethyl Oxide
(B) Trimethyl hexane
(C) Tetraethyl lead
(D) Triethyl toluene

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• Tetraethyl lead (TEL) was once added to petrol as an anti-knocking agent to increase the octane rating of fuel. A higher octane rating prevents premature ignition ("knocking") in internal combustion engines, improving efficiency and performance.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

88. Full form of PHBV biodegradable polymer is:

(A) Poly hydroxy butane veratric acid
(B) Polyhydroxy butyl vaniline
(C) Poly (3-hydroxy butyrate-co-3-hydroxy valerate)
(D) Poly hydroxy butyric acid veratric acid

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• PHBV stands for Poly(3-hydroxybutyrate-co-3-hydroxyvalerate).
• It is a biodegradable polymer belonging to the family of polyhydroxyalkanoates (PHAs), produced by microorganisms through fermentation.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

89. Hormones are secreted by:

(A) Reproductive glands
(B) Sebaceous glands
(C) Exocrine glands
(D) Endocrine glands

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

• Endocrine glands are specialized glands in the body that secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream. These hormones regulate various physiological functions such as metabolism, growth, mood, and reproduction.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

90. Which one of the following terms characterizes the interaction between herpes simplex virus and a human?

(A) Symbiosis
(B) Parasitism
(C) Endosymbiosis
(D) Endoparasitism

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• The interaction between herpes simplex virus and a human is characterized as parasitism. In parasitism, one organism benefits at the expense of the other. 
• Endoparasitism is the condition where an organism, an endoparasite, lives inside the body of a host, such as in its internal organs or tissues. The endoparasite obtains nutrition and shelter from the host and often causes harm or disease. Examples include tapeworms in the intestine.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

91. Which class of immunoglobulin is the first to be produced in response to an infection?

(A) IgA 
(B) IgG
(C) IgM
(D) IgE

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• IgM is the first class of immunoglobulin produced during the initial immune response to an infection. It is typically found in the bloodstream and acts as a first line of defense against pathogens. It can neutralize pathogens by binding to them and preventing them from infecting cells.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

92. The biological membranes are composed of:

(A) Lipids and proteins in varying combinations which are specific to each species, cell type and organelle
(B) Lipids only
(C) Proteins only
(D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• Biological membranes are primarily composed of lipids and proteins. The specific combination of these components varies depending on the species, cell type, and organelle. The most common arrangement is a lipid bilayer with embedded proteins.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

93. Which of the following is a non-sense codon?

(A) AUG
(B) UAA
(C) UUU
(D) UGC

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• UAA is a nonsense (stop) codon that signals the end of protein synthesis.
  • AUG: This is the start codon.
  • UUU: This codon codes for phenylalanine.
  • UGC: This codon codes for cysteine.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

94. The species which are in danger of extinction are known as?

(A) Rare
(B) Vulnerable
(C) Endangered
(D) Extinct

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• Species that face a very high risk of extinction in the near future are classified as Endangered under the IUCN Red List. Examples in India: Tiger, Asiatic Lion, Ganges River Dolphin, Great Indian Bustard.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

95. Which of the following is a Kharif crop?

(A) Barley
(B) Sugarcane
(C) Gram
(D) Wheat

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• Kharif crops are  sown with the onset of monsoon (June–July) and harvested in Sept–Oct. Example: Rice, maize, cotton, jowar, bajra, sugarcane.
• Barley, Gram and Wheat are Rabi crops.These crops are sown around the Retreating Monsoon and Northeast monsoon season, which begins in October and are called rabi or winter crops.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

96. Xylem in plants is responsible for following function:

(A) Transport of foods
(B) Transport of water and dissolved minerals
(C) Transport of oxygen and other gases
(D) Transport of essential amino acids

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• Xylem is the vascular tissue in plants responsible for the upward transport of water and dissolved minerals from roots to stems and leaves. It consists of tracheids, vessels, xylem parenchyma, and xylem fibers.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

97. Who was first to use the characteristics of vascular tissues in the classification of plants?

(A) Engler and Prantl
(B) Bentham and Hooker
(C) A.P. de Condolle
(D) More than one of the above 

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• Vascular tissue, consisting of xylem and phloem, is responsible for transporting water, minerals, and nutrients in vascular plants.
• A.P. de Candolle used the presence and arrangement of vascular tissues to develop a natural system for classifying plants, marking a major advancement over earlier artificial systems. His work laid the foundation for further discoveries about vascular tissue's role in plant development and adaptation.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

98. The part which we eat in Mango is:

(A) Epicarp
(B) Mesocarp
(C) Endocarp
(D) None of the above

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• A mango is a drupe fruit with three layers in its pericarp:
  • Epicarp: The outer skin or thin peel.
  • Mesocarp: The fleshy, juicy edible part (what we eat).
  • Endocarp: The hard, stony layer enclosing the seed.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

99. Ozone day is celebrated on:

(A) 5th June
(B) 16th September
(C) 21st April
(D) 5th December

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer (commonly called World Ozone Day) is observed on 16th September each year. It marks the signing of the Montreal Protocol (1987), an international treaty aimed at phasing out ozone-depleting substances (like CFCs).

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

100. In mycorrhizal association the advantage of plant is:

(A) Protection
(B) Food
(C) (A) and (B) both
(D) Increased mineral absorption and diseases protection

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

• Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association between certain fungi and the roots of higher plants.The primary advantages of mycorrhizal associations are the increased absorption of minerals and protection from diseases.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

101. Which Commission accentuated the discontent in all the political groups and parties for not associating any Indian member in it?

(A) Cripps Mission
(B) Welby Commission
(C) Simon Commission
(D) Cabinet Mission

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• The Simon Commission (1927) accentuated discontent among all political groups and parties in India because it did not include any Indian members.
• This led to widespread protests, as the Indian National Congress and other political groups demanded that Indians be included in any discussions regarding India's future governance.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

102. Who assumed the command of the Indian National Army and gave the famous battle cry, 'Chalo Delhi'?

(A) Mohan Singh
(B) Rash Behari Bose
(C) Shah Nawaz Khan
(D) Subhash Chandra Bose

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

• Subhash Chandra Bose assumed the command of the Indian National Army (INA) and gave the famous battle cry, "Chalo Delhi," which was a call to march towards Delhi and liberate India from British rule.
• This iconic phrase became a symbol of the Indian struggle for independence during World War II.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

103. "We shall either free India or die in the attempt..." who said it?

(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Abul Kalam Azad
(D) V.D. Savarkar

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• "We shall either free India or die in the attempt" was made by Mahatma Gandhi during the launch of the Quit India Movement in August 1942.
• This powerful call to action, also known as the "Do or Die" mantra, was a significant moment in India's struggle for independence from British rule.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

104. Who raised the cry "Divide and Quit"?

(A) M.A. Jinnah
(B) M.A. Ansari
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Muhammad Iqbal

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• M.A. Jinnah, the leader of the All India Muslim League, raised the slogan "Divide and Quit" in the context of demanding the partition of India, leading to the creation of Pakistan. This was part of his efforts to secure a separate nation for Muslims, which ultimately led to the partition of India in 1947.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

105. Which Act provided for the partition of India into two new dominions - India and Pakistan?

(A) Govt. of India Act, 1919
(B) Govt. of India Act, 1935
(C) Indian Independence Act, 1947
(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• The Indian Independence Act of 1947 provided for the partition of India into two new dominions: India and Pakistan. This act was passed by the British Parliament and marked the end of British rule in India, leading to the creation of two independent nations on August 15, 1947.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

106. Which Congress leader visited Bihar in 1918 in order to strengthen the activities of the Home Rule League?

(A) Annie Besant
(B) B.G. Tilak
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) M.A. Ansari

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• Annie Besant visited Bihar in the context of the Home Rule Movement in 1918 twice.
• She, along with Bal Gangadhar Tilak, was a co-founder of the Home Rule League, which aimed to secure self-governance for India through constitutional means.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

107. Champaran Agrarian Committee was appointed in an agreement between:

(A) Indian Government and Raj Kumar Shukla
(B) Indian Government and Gandhiji
(C) Indian Government and Rajendra Prasad
(D) Indian Government and Anugraha Narayan Singh

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• The Champaran Agrarian Committee was established through an agreement between the Indian Government and Mahatma Gandhi.
• This followed Gandhi’s leadership in the Champaran Satyagraha of 1917, where he advocated for the rights of indigo farmers who were being exploited by British planters in Bihar’s Champaran region.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

108. Who was the prominent leader of the Kisan Sabha movement in Bihar?

(A) Sahajanand Saraswati
(B) Raj Kumar Shukla
(C) Acharya Narendra Dev
(D) Baba Ram Chandra

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• Sahajanand Saraswati was the prominent leader of the Kisan Sabha movement in Bihar. He played a key role in organizing peasants and advocating for their rights against exploitation by landlords and the British colonial system.
• He  founded the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (BPKS) in 1929.  He also founded the Hindi journal "Hunkar" from Patna to spread awareness among farmers.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

109. Who was murdered while hoisting the national flag under the area of Bikram Police Station?

(A) Raghunath Singh of Gorkhari
(B) Ram Narain of Bikrampur
(C) Satyendra of Gorkhari
(D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• During the Quit India Movement, Raghunath Singh and his associate from Gorkhari were shot dead by police while attempting to hoist the national flag near Bikram Police Station in Bihar. This act of defiance against British colonial rule led to their martyrdom.

Note: The original name of Raghunath Singh was Rangnath Singh as mentioned in his memorial in Bikram. However, he was called Raghunath Singh.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

110. Who became Chief Minister of Bihar in March 1939?

(A) Anugraha Narain Singh
(B) Rajendra Prasad
(C) Shri Krishna Singh
(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• In March 1939, Shri Krishna Singh, also known as Bihar Kesari or Shri Babu, became the Premier (Chief Minister) of Bihar. His tenure as Premier began on July 20, 1937, and lasted until October 31, 1939.
• During this period, he led the Congress ministry in Bihar, which was formed under the Government of India Act of 1935. (During the period CM was called as Premier).

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

111. Match List I with List II

  List-I                                           List-II

Places in Ancient India Presently in which State

a) Karnasuvarna                    1) Maharashtra

b) Pragjyotish                         2) Gujarat

c) Girnar                                 3) West Bengal

d) Pratishthana                       4) Assam

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

      a   b   c  d

(A) 3   4    2  1
(B) 4   3    1  2
(C) 3   2    4  1
(D) 4   2    1  3

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• Karnasuvarna was an important ancient city in West Bengal.
• Pragjyotish was the ancient name for Assam.
• Girnar  is an ancient site located in Gujarat, known for its Jain temples.
• Pratishthana was an ancient city located in Maharashtra.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

112. Which one of the following is not related to the Rigvedic period?

(A) Gargi
(B) Ghosha
(C) Apala
(D) Vishvavara

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• Rigvedic women like Ghosha, Apala, and Vishvavara are mentioned in the Rigveda as composers of hymns (Rishikas).They contributed to spiritual and philosophical thought in early Vedic society.
• Gargi was a highly respected woman philosopher and sage from the Vedic period, roughly between 800 and 500 BCE. She was born into the lineage of the sage Garga and was the daughter of the sage Vachaknu. Renowned as a great scholar and expounder of the Vedas, Gargi earned the title Brahmavadini.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

113. Match List I with List II

      List-I                               List II

     Event/ Place                  Connected with Person

a) Chola Gangam Lake         1) Chandragupta Maurya

b) Appointment of Dharma    2) Harshavardhan Mahamatra

c) Assembly at Prayag           3) Rajendra I

d) Sudharshan Lake               4) Ashoka

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

      a    b     c     d

A)   1     4    2     3
B)   3     4    2     1
C)   3     4    1     2
D)   2     3    1     4

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• Chola Gangam Lake is connected with Rajendra I (as he built and promoted this water body during the Chola dynasty).
  
• Appointment of Dharma Mahamatra is connected with Ashoka (as he appointed them during his reign to promote Dharma).
  
• Assembly at Prayag is connected with Harshavardhan (held during his reign at Prayag).
  
• Sudharshan Lake is connected with Chandragupta Maurya (the lake was constructed during his rule).

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

114. Who among the following rulers, ruled for the maximum period?

(A) Muhammad bin Tughlugq
(B) Alauddin Khilji
(C) Bahlol Lodi
(D) Balban

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• Bahlol Lodi was the founder of the Lodi dynasty and ruled as the Sultan of Delhi from 1451 to 1489, a period of 38 years. His reign marked the beginning of the Lodi dynasty's rule over the Delhi Sultanate. He was a notable figure for consolidating power and stabilizing the empire after the decline of the Tughlaq dynasty.
• Muhammad bin Tughlaq ( 1325 to 1351 AD.), Alauddin Khilji (1296 to 1316 AD), Balban (1266 to 1287 AD).

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

115. Consider the following dynasties of Ancient

India:

1)    Shunga

2)    Maurya

3)    Kushana

4)    Kanva

Which of the following is the correct chronological order of their rule?

(A) 1-2-3-4
(B) 2-1-4-3
(C) 2-3-1-4
(D) 2-1-3-4

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• The Mauryan Empire, founded by Chandragupta Maurya (321 BCE), is one of the most prominent dynasties in Indian history.
• After the decline of the Mauryan Empire, the Shunga Dynasty rose to power around 185 BCE founded by Pushyamitra Shunga.
• The Kanva Dynasty ruled after the fall of the Shunga Dynasty, from around 75 BCE to 28 BCE.
• The Kushana Empire ruled in the 1st and 2nd centuries CE and included regions of northern India, Pakistan, and Afghanistan.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

116. Which one of the following is not written by Tulsidas?

(A) Vinay Patrika
(B) Geetavali
(C) Sahitya Lahari
(D) Kavitavali

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• Sahitya Lahari was not written by Tulsidas. It is a work of Surdas, written in Braj Bhasha. Vinay Patrika, Geetavali and Kavitavali are written by Tulsidas.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

117. Match List I with List II

      List-I                              List II

        Building                              Built by

a)   Kabuli Bagh Mosque                 1) Qutub ud- Din Aibak

b)   Adhai Din Ka Jhopra                 2) Nur Jahan

c)   Allahabad Fort                          3) Akbar

d) Itmad-ud-Daulah Mausoleum       4) Babar

Select the correct answer using the codes given

     a      b      c    d

(A)  2      1      4   3
(B)  4      1      3   2
(C)  4      1      2   3
(D)  1      4     3    2

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

118. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

      Person               Associated with                        

(A) Dayananda Saraswati - Satyarth Prakash
(B) James Augustus Hickey - Calcutta Chronicle
(C) Ramaswamy Naicker - Justice Party
(D) Jyotirao Phule - Satyashodhak Samaj

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• James Augustus Hickey was associated with Bengal Gazette, also known as the Calcutta General Advertiser published in 1780, which was the first printed newspaper in India.
• The founders of The Calcutta Chronicle, an early newspaper in India, were Daniel Stuart and Joseph Cooper.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

119. Match List I with List II

        List I                 List II

        Father                Son

a) Babar                1) Salim

b) Akbar                 2) Khusrau

c) Shah Jahan       3) Kamran

d) Jahagir               4) Murad

Select the correct answer using the codes

        a  b  c   d

A)   3    1  4   2
B)   4    1  3   2
C)   3    1  2   4
D)   4    2  3   1

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• Babar (father) – Kamran (son): Babar's son was Kamran.
• Akbar (father) – Salim (son): Salim is also known as Jahangir, Akbar's son.
• Shah Jahan (father) – Aurangzeb (son): Shah Jahan's son was Aurangzeb, but since "Murad" is listed as an option, Murad was Shah Jahan's son, though he was not as prominent.
• Jahangir (father) – Khusrau (son): Jahangir's son was Khusrau.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

120. Which Buddhist council was not held in Bihar?

(A) Second
(B) First
(C) Third
(D) Fourth

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

• The Fourth Buddhist Council was not held in Bihar.
• It was held in Kundalavana (modern-day Kashmir) under the patronage of King Kanishka.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

121. Which of the following statements about Subhas Chandra Bose are correct?

1. He was elected President of the Indian National Congress at Tripuri session of 1938 A.D.
2. He escaped from home internment in January 1941 A.D.
3. On October 21st 1943 A.D., he constituted the Provisional Government of India in Singapore.

(A) Only 2 and 3
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• Subhas Chandra Bose was elected President of the Indian National Congress at the Haripura (Gujarat)  session of 1938 A.D.
• He escaped from home internment in January 1941 A.D.
• On October 21st, 1943 A.D., he constituted the Provisional Government of India in Singapore, with the goal of leading the Indian independence movement from abroad, supported by the Axis powers.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

122. Who among the following was not an Acharya The Nalanda Vishvavidyalaya?

(A) Kautilya
(B) Nagarjuna
(C) Sheelibhadra
(D) Shantarakshit

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• Kautilya (also known as Chanakya) was not an Acharya at Nalanda University. He was a teacher at Takshashila (Taxila) and is primarily known for his work on political science, economics, and his role in the establishment of the Maurya dynasty.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

123. Consider the following events of Modern Indian History -

1. Death sentence to Raja Nand Kumar
2. Treaty of Salbai
3. Battle of Wandiwash
4. Death of Tipu Sultan

Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the above events?

(A) 3-1-2-4
(B) 2-3-4-1
(C) 2-4-1-3
(D) 3-2-1-4

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• Battle of Wandiwash (1760) between the British East India Company and the French East India Company.
• Raja Nand Kumar (1775) was sentenced to death by the British for the charge of forgery.
• Treaty of Salbai (1782) signed between the Marathas and the British to end the First Anglo-Maratha War.
• Death of Tipu Sultan (1799) the ruler of Mysore, died during the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

124. Among the following Newspapers of Bihar, which was the first one to get published?

(A) Patna Harkara
(B) Bihar Bandhu
(C) Akhbar-E-Bihar
(D) Bihar Herald

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• Patna Harkara, first published in 1779, was the earliest newspaper from Bihar, and it was published in Urdu.
• The state's weekly newspaper named 'Bihar Bandhu' was published from Bihar Sharif in 1872.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

125. Match List-I with List-II

List-I                                                     List-II

Event/Organisation                            Related Person

a) Champaran Satyagrah                         1) Jayaprakash Narayan

b) Azad Dasta                                         2) Shyam Narayan Singh

c) Individual Satyagrah in Bihar 1940        3) Sahajanand Saraswati

d) Kisan Sabha Bihar                                4) Dr Rajendra Prasad

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

      a    b   c   d

(A) 2    3  1   4
(B) 4    2   3   1
(C) 1    4   3   2
(D) 4    1   2   3

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

• The Champaran Satyagraha was a non-violent protest led by Mahatma Gandhi in 1917 in Champaran, Bihar, against the exploitation of indigo farmers by British planters. Dr. Rajendra Prasad also participated in it.
• Azad Dasta was a group of revolutionaries formed to resist British rule. The related person is Jayaprakash Narayan, who played a key role in revolutionary activities and later in the Quit India Movement.
• In the 1940 Individual Satyagraha Shyam Narayan participated.
• The Kisan Sabha Bihar was organised by Sahajanand Saraswati.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

126. In the following question, out of four words given below, three are alike in some manner and fourth word is different. Find the different one.

(A) Telescope
(B) Microscope
(C) Stethoscope
(D) Periscope

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• Telescope, microscope, and periscope are optical instruments used for viewing (far objects, tiny objects, or around obstacles). A stethoscope is an acoustic instrument used to listen to internal body sounds, so it’s the odd one out.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

127.SPRING is written in a code as UNUFRC. How will the word MOBILE be mentioned in that code language?

(A) OMPGNC
(B) OMEFPA
(C) MPQSUL
(D) SEGRFT

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

SPRING is written as UNUFRC.    By analyzing each letter: ● S → U (shift by +2) ● P → N (shift by -2) ● R → U (shift by +3) ● I → F (shift by -3) ● N → R (shift by +4) ● G → C (shift by -4)	Now, applying this pattern to the word MOBILE: ● M → O (shift by +2) ● O → M (shift by -2) ● B → E (shift by +3) ● I → F (shift by -3) ● L → P (shift by +4) ● E → A (shift by -4) Thus, MOBILE will be written as OMEFPA

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

128. Mukesh said to his friend, "Rita is the mother of my son's wife’s daughter". How is Mukesh related to Rita?

(A) Son-in-law
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Father- in- law

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

• Mukesh says: "Rita is the mother of my son's wife’s daughter."My son's wife" refers to Mukesh's daughter-in-law.
• "My son's wife’s daughter" refers to the daughter of Mukesh's daughter-in-law, meaning Rita is mother.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

129. Ram goes North, turns right, then goes right again and then goes to left. In which direction Ram is now?

(A) SOUTH
(B) EAST
(C) NORTH
(D) WEST

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• Ram goes North: He is facing North.
  • Turns right: Turning right from North means he is now facing East.
  • Turns right again: Turning right from East means he is now facing South.
  • Turns left: Turning left from South means he is now facing East. Therefore, Ram is now facing East.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

130. Writing in Alphabetical order, which name of the following will appear in the last?

(A)  Mohinder
(B)  Mahinder
(C)  Mohender
(D)  Mahendra

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• In alphabetical order, the sequence will be as follows:
  • Mahendra
  • Mahinder
  • Mohender
  • Mohinder

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

131.Nitin is 7 ranks ahead of Joginder in a class of 39. If Joginder's rank is 17th from the last, what is Nitin's rank from the beginning?

(A) 15th
(B)17th
(C) 18th
(D) 16th

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

• Nitin is 7 ranks ahead of Joginder. Joginder's rank is 17th from the last in a class of 39.
  Joginder's rank from the beginning:
  • Rank from the last = 17th, so Joginder's rank from the beginning is 39−17+1=23
  • Now, since Nitin is 7 ranks ahead of Joginder, Nitin's rank will be = 23−7=16

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

132. If + means ×,  × means -, ÷ means + and - means ÷ , then 175 - 25 ÷ 5 + 20 x 3 + 10 equals to:

(A) 87
(B) 77
(C) 140
(D) 70

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• Based on the given replacements: 175 ÷ 25 + 5 × 20 - 3 × 10 = 77

Therefore, option (B ) is the correct answer.

133. Rahul is 3 times as old as Seema. Laxmi was twice as old as Rahul four years ago. In four year's time, Rahul will be 31. What are the present ages of Seema and Laxmi?

(A) 9, 52
(B) 10, 50
(C) 9, 45
(D) 9, 50

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

•     Let S= Seema’s present age, R= Rahul present age and L= Laxmi present age
  • R+ 4 = 31 years, R= 27 years
  • Rahul is three times Seema= 9
  • Laxmi was twice as old as Rahul four years ago = (L-4)= 2×(R-4)
  • (L-4) = 23 × 2 = 46 +4 = 50 

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

134. Find the missing number from the given alternatives:

28	20	7
84	?	12
45	25	9

(A) 35
(B) 30
(C) 20
(D) 25

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

•     1st Row = 28/7 = 4, 4× 5 =20
•     2nd Row = 84/12 = 7, 7 × 5 = 35
•     3rd Row = 45/9 = 5, 5x5 = 25

So, the missing number is 35.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

135. RAIN is written in a code as 8$%6 and MORE is mentioned as 7#8@. How will REMAIN be mentioned in code language?

(A) %7@%6#
(B) @$86%7
(C) 86@$#7
(D) 8@7$%6

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

•     R is 8
•     E is @
•     M is 7
•     A is $
•     I is %
•     N is 6

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer. 

136. How many bronze medals were won by Bihar players in the 38th National Junior Athletics Championship 2025?

(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• In the 38th National Junior Athletics Championship 2025,  Bihar players won 5 bronze medals. In the Championship total 12 medals were won by Bihar including 1 (gold) and 6 (silver medals).

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer. 

137. Which districts in Bihar will benefit from the Kosi-Mechi Link Project?

(A) Patna, Nalanda, Gaya, Siwan
(B) Darbhanga, Muzaffarpur, Sitamarhi, Begusarai
(C) Araria, Purnea, Kishanganj, Katihar
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• Kosi Mechi Intra-State Link Project envisages diversion of part of surplus water of Kosi river for extending irrigation to Mahananda basin lying in Bihar by way of remodelling of existing Eastern Kosi Main Canal (EKMC) and extending the EKMC beyond its tail end at RD 41.30 km up to river Mechi at RD 117.50 km so that rivers Kosi and Mechi which flow through Bihar could be linked together within Bihar.
• The Link Project will provide 2,10,516 hectares additional annual irrigation in Kharif season in Araria, Purnea, Kishanganj and Katihar districts of Bihar.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer. 

138. Which Indian languages are accorded the status of Classical Language?

(A) Telugu
(B) Marathi
(C) Bengali
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

• Telugu, Marathi and Bengali all have been granted classical language status. Apart from these, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese, Odia, Tamil, Kannada, Sanskrit and Malayalam have also been granted classical status.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

139. Which organisation recognized the Nagi bird sanctuary Site as an Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA)?

(A) UNESCO
(B) World Wildlife Fund
(C) Bird Life International
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• The Nagi Bird Sanctuary in Bihar was recognized as an Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA) by BirdLife International. BirdLife International is a global partnership that works to identify and conserve IBAs worldwide.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer. 

140. Where was the National Panchayati Raj Day 2025 event organised?

(A) Patna
(B) Madhubani
(C) Gaya
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• The National Panchayati Raj Day 2025 event in Bihar was organized at Lohna Uttar Gram Panchayat, Jhanjharpur Block, in the Madhubani.  This location was central to the celebrations, contributing to visibility for Bihar’s achievements in Panchayati Raj and rural development.
• It was for the first time that the Ministry of Panchayati Raj institutionalised dedicated Special Category Awards to incentivize and acknowledge exemplary efforts of Gram Panchayats in the key national priorities of Climate Action and Atmanirbharta.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer. 

141. What is the primary objective of the Lunar Trailblazer mission?

(A) To detect and map water on the Moon's surface
(B) To create a 3D model of the entire Moon
(C) To test new lunar rovers
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

• The primary objective of NASA's Lunar Trailblazer mission is to detect and map water on the Moon's surface. The mission aims to determine the form, abundance, and distribution of water (H₂O) and hydroxyl (OH) across targeted areas of the sunlit lunar surface, including variability by latitude, soil maturity, and lithology.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

142. Afrikaners indicate the people:

(A) Of Indo-African descent in the U.S.
(B) Indigenous tribal communities in Africa
(C) The white minority group in South Africa
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• Afrikaners are primarily descendants of Dutch settlers in South Africa, and they form a significant part of the white minority in the country. The term refers to people who speak Afrikaans, a language that evolved from 17th-century Dutch, and have historically been involved in the politics of South Africa, particularly during the era of apartheid.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

143. What is the name of the 16th-century stepwell that the Archaeological Survey of India recently conserved in collaboration with the World Monuments Fund India?

(A) Agrasen ki Baoli
(B) Rajon ki Baoli
(C) Chauki Bavdi
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• In 2025 it was announced that the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), in collaboration with the World Monuments Fund India (WMFI) and the TCS Foundation, successfully completed the restoration of Rajon ki Baoli, a 16th-century stepwell located in Mehrauli Archaeological Park, New Delhi.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

144. What is the name of the city mayor who proclaimed April 14, 2025, as 'Dr B. R. Ambedkar Day' in New York City?

(A) Bill de Blasio
(B) Eric Adams
(C) Sadiq Khan
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• New York City Mayor Eric Adams declared April 14 as Dr. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar Day to mark the 135th birth anniversary of the Indian social reformer and Constitution architect. The proclamation was made during a special event at the UN Headquarters.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

145. What is the permanent slogan for the Eurovision Song Contest?

(A) Music unites us
(B) Together in Song
(C) United By Music
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• The European Broadcasting Union and SVT announced in 2023 that "United by Music" has been chosen as the slogan for the 2024 Eurovision Song Contest and all future editions of the event.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

146. What is true of the GSLV-F15 mission by ISRO? 

(A)  It carried the NVS-02 satellite
(B)  It marked ISRO'S 101st  launch from Sriharikota
(C)  It marked ISRO's 100th launch from Sriharikota
(D)  More than one of the above

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

• The GSLV-F15 mission by  ISRO carried the NVS-02 satellite which is part of India's second-generation navigation satellite series, enhancing the NavIC system. The GSLV-F15 mission was ISRO's 100th launch from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

147. What is true of the 18th G20 Summit?

(A) It was held in Rio de Janeiro
(B) Its theme was 'Building a Just World and a Sustainable Planet'
(C) The Rio de Janeiro Declaration emphasised the taxation of billionaires
(D) None of the above

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

• The 18th G20 Summit was held in New Delhi, India, marking India's first time hosting the event. The theme, "Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam" ("The world is one family"), highlighted global unity.
• The summit's New Delhi Declaration reached unanimous consensus on key issues, including the Russia-Ukraine conflict, sustainable development, food security, and the launch of the Global Biofuel Alliance.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

148. The UN climate conference held in Baku in 2024 concluded with an agreement that:

(A) Aims to ban fossil fuels globally by 2030
(B) Calls on developed countries to provide at least $500 billion annually to developing nations by 2030
(C) Calls on developed countries to provide at least $300 billion annually to developing nations by 2035
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• At the 2024 UN climate conference, developed countries agreed to mobilize at least $300 billion annually by 2035 to support developing nations in their climate change mitigation and adaptation efforts.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

149. Awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2024, Han Kang's novel 'The Vegetarian' won which other prestigious award?

(A) Pulitzer Prize
(B) Pen America Literary Awards
(C) International Booker Prize
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• Han Kang's novel ‘The Vegetarian’ won the 2016 International Booker Prize - a decade after it was first published in Korean. The prize was shared between Han Kang and her translator (english), Deborah Smith.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

150. Which glacier of Nepal among the following has been declared 'dead' in May 2025?

(A) Khumbu Glacier
(B) Yala Glacier
(C) Imja Glacier
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• Yala Glacier, situated in Langtang Valley, Nepal, within the Hindu Kush Himalayan (HKH) region, is the first glacier in Nepal to be declared “dead” as it has shrunk by 66% since the 1970s. Glaciers are declared "dead" when they no longer show movement or flow under their own weight.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.