UP PCS Pre Answer Key 2025 (General Studies I) by Drishti IAS

Uttar Pradesh

05 Nov 2025
223 min read

The Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission (UPPSC) conducted the UP PCS Preliminary Examination 2025 on October 12 across various centers in the state. Thousands of candidates appeared for the exam, marking another important step toward a career in the civil services.

With the exam now over, aspirants are eager to check the official UPPCS answer key 2025 and evaluate their performance.

At Drishti IAS, our team of experts has prepared the most accurate and detailed UPPSC Prelims answer key 2025 (General Studies). You can either download the Question Paper or scroll down to view the UPPSC Prelims solutions with complete explanations.

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1. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The interior part of Australia is desert and semi-desert.

Reason (R): Northern Australia is situated in the temperate zone.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

The interior of Australia is classified as desert and semi-desert, featuring major deserts like the Great Victoria, Great Sandy, and Gibson. Deserts officially cover about 18% of the mainland, but approximately 35% of the continent receives so little rainfall that it is effectively classified as arid or semi-arid, making Australia the driest inhabited continent.Therefore, Assertion (A) is true.

Northern Australia lies in the tropical zone. This region is predominantly characterized by tropical savannah and monsoon climates, especially in and around cities like Darwin and Cairns. Therefore, Reason (R) is false.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

2. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): India is the second largest mobile gaming market in the world.

Reason (R): There are more than 950 million internet users in India.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

India is the second-largest mobile gaming market in the world. According to several industry reports, India ranks second in terms of the number of mobile gamers, only behind China. The growth of mobile gaming in India has been driven by increasing smartphone penetration and affordable internet data plans. Therefore, Assertion (A) is true.

As per the Ministry of Communications the total internet subscribers increased from 251.59 million as of March 2014 to 954.40 million in March 2024. Therefore, Reason (R) is true.

Thus, both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

3. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Babur wrote Tuzk-e-Babri in Chagatai Turki.

Reason (R): Turki was the official language of the Mughal Court.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Babur was the founder of the Mughal Empire. He wrote Tuzk-e-Babri (also known as Baburnama) in Chagatai Turki, which was his native language.

Turki (or Persian) was widely used in the Mughal court. It was Persian and not Turkish, the official language of the Mughal court.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

4. Match List-I with List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer by using the code given below the List-I with List-II:

List-I (Coal Field)	List-II (Country)
A. Appalachian	1. England
B. Lancashire	2. Germany
C. Ruhr	3. Russia
D. Kuzbass	4. United States of America

Code:

A B C D

(a) 4 1 2 3

(b) 1 4 3 2

(d) 4 1 3 2

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Coalfield

Description

Appalachian Coalfield

It occurs within the eastern United States (US).

This mountainous landscape is formed from natural dissection of sedimentary geologic strata with interbedded seams of coal and serves as headwaters for multiple rivers.

Lancashire

Coalfield

It is located in Northwestern England, mainly in the counties of Lancashire and Greater Manchester.

One of Britain’s major coalfields during the Industrial Revolution (18th–19th centuries).

Ruhr Coalfield

The Ruhr coalfield (extending west of the Rhine and north of the Lippe) is one of the world’s largest, producing the bulk of Germany’s bituminous coal.

Kuzbass

Coalfield

The Kuzbass Coalfield, also known as the Kuznetsk Basin, is located in southwestern Siberia, Russia.

It is a crucial industrial center for the country, possessing vast reserves of high-quality coking and thermal coal.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

5. With reference to Ecosystem’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Green plants in terrestrial ecosystem capture about 1% of energy of the sunlight that falls on their leaves.
Around 10% of organic matter reaches to the next higher level of consumers.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor

(d) Only 1

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

In terrestrial ecosystems, green plants capture roughly 1% of the incident solar energy through photosynthesis to produce organic matter.

According to the 10% law of energy transfer proposed by Raymond Lindeman, only about 10% of energy from one trophic level is transferred to the next higher trophic level.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

6. Which of the following events took place in the year 1911?

Partition of Bengal revoked
Transfer of capital fromCalcuttato Delhi
Lucknow pact between Congress and Muslim League

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) Only 1

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Partition of Bengal: It was a major administrative reorganization of the Bengal Presidency, intended to divide the large province for efficient governance. It separated the predominantly Hindu western regions from the predominantly Muslim eastern regions.

The partition officially came into effect on 16th October 1905. It was annulled on 12th December 1911.

Transfer of capital from Calcutta to Delhi: The British government shifted the capital of India from Calcutta to Delhi in 1911, a move announced by King George V during the Delhi Durbar on 12th December 1911.

Lucknow Pact, (December 1916): Agreement made by the Indian National Congress headed by Maratha leader Bal Gangadhar Tilak and the All-India Muslim League led by Muhammad Ali Jinnah; it was adopted by the Congress at its Lucknow session on 29th December and by the league on 31st December 1916.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

7. Consider the following events and arrange them in correct chronological order.

PoonaPact
End of Civil Disobedience Movement
Gandhi-Irwin Pact
Second Round Table Conference

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code :

(a) 3, 4, 2, 1

(b) 4, 3, 1, 2

(D) 3, 4, 1, 2

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Gandhi–Irwin Pact (March 5, 1931): It was a political agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and Viceroy Lord Irwin, under which Gandhi agreed to suspend the Civil Disobedience Movement in return for concessions like the release of political prisoners and the right to produce salt.

Second Round Table Conference (12th September 1931): As a part of the Gandhi-Irwin pact, Gandhi participated in the Second Round Table Conference (RTC). RTC objective was to discuss constitutional reforms for India.

Poona Pact (1932): Between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar concerning the political representation of the Depressed Classes—a term then used for Dalits or the Scheduled Castes.

End of Civil Disobedience Movement (1934): Civil Disobedience Movement was started by Mahatma Gandhi on 12 March 1930 against the salt tax imposed by the British.The movement was suspended in May 1933 and was finally withdrawn in April 1934.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

8. As per the India State of Forest Report 2023, which of the following districts in Uttar Pradesh had forest over more than 20% of their totalarea ?

1. Bahraich

2. Chandauli

3. Shravasti

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(A) 1 and 2

(B) Only 3

(D) Only 1

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

The Ministry for Environment, Forest and Climate Change released the 18th India State of Forest Report 2023 (ISFR 2023). It has been released on a biennial basis since 1987.

According to the India State of Forest Report 2023 both Shravasti (20.95%) and Chandauli (21.63%) districts in Uttar Pradesh have over 20% of their total area covered by forests. Bahraich has 10.15% of the total forest area of the state.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

9. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

(Coal Producing Area) (State)

Maolong – Arunachal Pradesh
Raniganj – West Bengal
Ramgarh – Jharkhand
Talcher – Odisha

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 2, 3 and 4

(d) Only 1

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Coalfield	Facts
Raniganj Coalfield	It is one of the oldest and most significant coalfields in India, located in the Asansol-Durgapur region of West Bengal.
Ramgarh coalfield	It is located in the Ramgarh district of Jharkhand and is one of the key coal mining areas in the Damodar Valley region.
Talcher coalfield	It is situated in the northeastern part of Odisha,is known for having large reserves of high-grade coal, primarily of the bituminous and sub-bituminous types.
Maolong Coalfield	It is located in Meghalaya in the Jaintia hills.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

10. With reference to ‘Delhi Government’s Bio-decomposer and SprayProgramme’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

The Bio-decomp Bio-decomposer solution is provided free of cost to farmers to help convert stubble into manure.
The Bio-decomposer solution is prepared using a mix of several fungi.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

(A) Only 2

(B) Neither 1 nor 2

(D) Only 1

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Delhi’s recurring winter air pollution and smog are primarily caused by stubble burning in neighboring states. To tackle this, the Delhi Government launched the Bio-Decomposer Spray Programme in 2021, aiming to convert crop residue into manure, thereby reducing stubble burning and the release of harmful gases into the atmosphere.

Under this biodecomposer solution is provided free of cost to farmers to convert stubble into manure. The solution is prepared using a mix of several fungi.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

11. With reference to creation of new All India Service, which of the following statements is/are correct?

In the national interest, the Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution for creation of new All India Service.
The resolution for creation of new All India Service must be passed by the Rajya Sabha by two-third majority of the total members of the house.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(A) Only 2

(B) Neither 1 nor

(D) Only 1

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

All India Services (AIS) comprise the IAS, IPS, and IFoS, ensuring administrative unity within India’s federal framework. Established under Article 312 to promote coordinated yet decentralized governance, balancing national integrity and state autonomy.

Under Article 312 Rajya Sabha can authorise the Parliament to create new All- India Services common to both Centre and States by passing a two-thirds majority resolution of members present and voting.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

12. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List-I	List-II
(Disciple)	(Guru)
A. Kabir	1. Guru Nanak Dev
B. AmirKhusrau	2. Swami Ramananda
C. Surdas	3. Nizamuddin Auliya
D. Mardana	4. Vallabhacharya

Code:

A B C D

(a) 3 2 4 1

(b) 3 2 1 4

(d) 2 3 1 4

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Kabir: He was a 15th-century Indian mystic poet and saint, regarded as one of the greatest figures of the Bhakti Movement. He was a disciple of Sant Ramananda and sought to bridge the divide between Hinduism and Islam through his teachings.

Amir Khusrau: His spiritual guru was Hazrat Nizamuddin Auliya, the famous Sufi saint of the Chishti order in Delhi. Khusrau was not only his devoted disciple but also his favorite companion.

Surdas: He was a 16th century devotional poet. His guru was Vallabhacharya, a philosopher and the founder of the Pushti Marg sect.

Bhai Mardana: He was a close companion and the first follower of Guru Nanak Dev Ji, the founder of Sikhism. He was a Muslim by birth and a talented rebab (string instrument) player, who accompanied Guru Nanak on his spiritual journeys (Udasis).

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

13. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R)

Assertion (A): Investment in human capital yields returns in the future.

Reason (R): Education and health make people more productive.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Investment in human capital, such as education, skill development, and health, enhances an individual’s productive capabilities, leading to higher earnings and better economic outcomes over time. Such investments are considered to generate returns similar to financial investments but in the form of increased productivity and income. Therefore, Assertion (A) is true.

Education imparts knowledge and skills while good health ensures physical and mental well-being, both improving the overall productivity of individuals which in turn enhances economic output and personal income. Therefore, Reason (R) is true.

Thus, (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

14. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List-I (Refinery) List-II (State)

Nayara 1. Assam
Manali 2. Gujrat
Numaligarh 3. Andhra Pradesh
Tatipaka 4. Tamil Nadu

Code:

A B C D

(a) 4 2 3 1

(b) 2 4 1 3

(d) 4 2 1 3

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Numaligarh Refinery (Assam): It was established as a Company on 22nd April 1993 in accordance with the provisions made in the historic Assam Accord signed on 15th August 1985.

Nayara (Gujarat): Nayara Energy’s Vadinar refinery started commercial production in May 2008 and is India’s second-largest single- site refinery.

Manali (Tamil Nadu): It is operated by Chennai Petroleum Corporation, operating since 1969. It is said to be one of the oldest refineries in southern India.

Tatipaka (Andhra Pradesh): It is located in East Godavari district of A.P. It was set up on 3rd September 2001. It is the first ever ONGC refinery to produce petro products.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

15. Which of the following is/are NOT a dimension of food security?

1. Availability

2. Accessibility

3. Affordability

4. Accountability,

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(A) 1 and 2

(B) Only 4

(D) Only 1

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Based on the 1996 World Food Summit, food security is defined when all people, at all times, have physical and economic access to sufficient safe and nutritious food that meets their dietary needs and food preferences for an active and healthy life.

Various Dimensions of Food Security:

Availability of food, access to food (part of affordability), absorption of food in the body or its utilisation and stability.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

16. With reference to ‘Silver articles’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Silver articles turn black after some time when exposed to air.
It happens due to coating of silver sulphide.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(A) Only 2

(B) Neither 1 nor 2

(D) Only 1

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Silver is a soft, white, and lustrous transition metal known for having the highest electrical conductivity, thermal conductivity, and reflectivity among all metals. Found naturally in the Earth’s crust in its pure, free elemental form, it is commonly referred to as “native silver.”

When silver is exposed to sunlight for a long time, it gradually turns black because it reacts with sulfur compounds present in the air (like hydrogen sulfide, H₂S). This reaction forms a thin, black layer of silver sulfide (Ag₂S) on the metal surface.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List-I List-II

(Mission) (Date of Launch)

Chandrayaan-3 1. 02 September 2023
Aditya L1 2. 17 February 2024
INSAT-3DS 3. 14 July 2023
RLV-LEX-01 4. 02 April 2023

Code:

A B C D

(a) 1 3 4 2

(b) 3 1 2 4

(d) 1 3 2 4

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Aditya-L1: It is India’s first space-based solar observatory, designed to study the Sun from the Lagrange Point 1 (L1) in a halo orbit. This is ISRO’s second astronomy observatory-class mission after AstroSat (2015). It was launched on 2nd September, 2023.

INSAT- 3DS: It is an advanced meteorological satellite of India configured with an imaging System and an Atmospheric Sounder. It was launched on 17th February 2024.

Chandrayaan-3: It is India’s third lunar mission and second attempt at achieving a soft landing on the moon’s surface. On 14th July 2023, Chandrayaan-3 took off from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota.

RLV- LEX-01: ISRO successfully conducted the Reusable Launch Vehicle Autonomous Landing Mission (RLV LEX) from Aeronautical Test Range (ATR), Chitradurga, Karnataka in the early hours on 2nd April 2023.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

18. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List-I List-II

(State) (Number of seates in Rajya Sabha)

A. Maharashtra 1. 16

B. Karnataka 2. 18

C. Bihar 3. 19

D. Tamil Nadu 4. 12

Code:

A B C D

(a) 2 1 3 4

(b) 2 4 3 1

(d) 3 4 1 2

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution provides for allocation of seats to the States and Union Territories in Rajya Sabha. The allocation of seats is made on the basis of the population of each State.

Allocation to states: Maharashtra (19), Karnataka (12), Bihar (16) and Tamil Nadu (18).

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

19. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Poverty line differs across time the countries.

Reason (R): The basic needs of people vary across regions and overtime.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

'A poverty line is a designated threshold that represents the minimum income or consumption required for an individual or household to fulfill basic needs like food, shelter, and clothing. '

Basic needs such as food, shelter, and clothing may differ by region due to climate, culture, local prices, and living standards. Over time, as economies develop and societal expectations change, the definition of basic needs also evolves.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

20. With reference to SahityaAkademiYuva Puraskar announced in June 2025, which of the following statements is/are correct?

YuvaPuraskarwas announced in 23 Indian languages.

There is no YuvaPuraskarin Dogri this years.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Sahitya Akademi, India’s National Academy of Letters, is the Central institution for literary dialogue, publication and promotion in the country and the only institution that undertakes literary activities in 24 Indian languages, including English.

The Yuva Puraskar, in June 2025 was announced in 23 languages. The awardees include Advait Kottary in English, Parvati Tirkey in Hindi, Latshmihar for Tamil and Prasad Suri for Telugu. There is no Yuva Puraskar in Dogri this year.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

21. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):In the Himalayan mountains different types of vegetation are found.

Reason (R): In Himalayas, there are variations in climate with change in altitude.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Himalayan vegetation can be broadly classified into four types—tropical, subtropical, temperate, and alpine—each of which prevails in a zone determined mainly by elevation and precipitation.

The Himalayas have significant variations in climate with changes in altitude. At lower elevations, the climate is warmer and supports tropical and subtropical vegetation, while at higher altitudes, the climate becomes cooler, supporting temperate and alpine vegetation.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

22. With reference to ‘Carrying Capacity of Environment’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

The rate of resource extraction should remain above the rate of resource generation.
Generation of waste should remain within the absorption capacity of environment.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(A) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

The carrying capacity of the environment refers to the maximum population size of a species that an ecosystem can support indefinitely without degrading the natural resource base.

For the environment to maintain its carrying capacity, the rate of resource extraction must remain below or equal to the rate of resource regeneration to ensure long-term sustainability.

It represents the balance between population and resources, where the rate of resource consumption equals the rate of resource replenishment.

The generation of waste must remain within the environment’s absorption or assimilative capacity to prevent ecological damage.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

23. Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched ?

(Tribe) (Habitat)

1. Bushman – Kalahari Desert

2. Eskimo – Northern Canada

3. Pygmy – Congo Basin

4. Masai – West Africa

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(A) Only 1, 2 and 3

(B) Only 4

(D) Only 1

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Eskimos: Indigenous peoples of the Arctic region, traditionally inhabiting areas from eastern Siberia to Alaska, Canada, and Greenland.

Masai: A Nilotic ethnic group living across northern, central, and southern Kenya and northern Tanzania (east Africa).

Pygmy Tribes: Indigenous communities of Central Africa’s Congo Basin, known for their short stature and semi-nomadic, hunter-gatherer lifestyle.

Bushman: These are the indigenous peoples of southern Africa. They are found in Botswana, Namibia, South Africa, Angola and Zimbabwe.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

24. Which of the following pairs of Part of Indian Constitution and its subject is/are NOT correctlymatched ?

1. Part IV A – Fundamental Duties

2. Part VI – The States

3. Part XI – The Municipalities

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(A) 1 and 2

(B) Only 3

(D) Only 1

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Part IX-A of the Indian Constitution, introduced by the 74th Amendment Act, 1992, deals with Municipalities (urban local self-governance).

It provides constitutional status to urban local bodies and outlines provisions for the establishment of Nagar Panchayats, Municipal Councils, and Municipal Corporations.

Part XI of the Indian Constitution deals with the “Relations between the Union and the States.” It covers articles 245 to 263.

Part IV-A of the Indian Constitution deals with the Fundamental Duties of citizens. It was added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

25. Consider the following revolts and arrange them in correct chronological order.

Pabna

2. Indigo

3. Kuka

4. Sanyasi

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) 4, 3, 2, 1

(b) 3, 4, 1, 2

(d) 4, 2, 3, 1

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Pabna Revolt (1873- 1876): It was a peasant uprising against the oppressive zamindari system in the Pabna district of Bengal.

Indigo Revolt (1859–60): Also known as the Blue Rebellion, it was a peasant uprising in Bengal against the forced cultivation of indigo by European planters.

Kuka Revolt (1872): Also known as the Namdhari Movement, the Kuka Revolt was a religious and socio-political uprising in Punjab against British rule and social evils like cow slaughter and caste discrimination.

Sanyasi Revolt (1763–1800): It was an early uprising in Bengal by Hindu monks and Muslim fakirs against British taxation, famine hardships, and exploitation.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

26. Consider the following wars and arrange them in correct chronological order.

1. First Anglo-MysoreWar

2. Second Anglo-French War

3. First Anglo-Sikh War

4. First Anglo-Afghan War

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(A) 2, 1, 4, 3

(B) 1, 2, 3, 4

(D) 2, 1, 3, 4

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

The Anglo-Mysore Wars was a series of four military confrontations in India between the British and the rulers of Mysore.

Second Carnatic War (1749–1754): The war began due to a fight over who would rule Hyderabad and Carnatic, with the British and French supporting rival candidates.

The French won early battles, but Robert Clive’s attack on Arcot helped the British win; Chanda Sahib was killed.

The war ended with the Treaty of Pondicherry (1754), and British influence grew stronger in South India.

First Anglo-Mysore War (1767–1769): Fought between Hyder Ali of Mysore and the British East India Company. It concluded with the Treaty of Madras (1769), restoring captured territories to both sides.

First Anglo-Afghan War (1839–1842): Fought between the British Empire and Afghanistan as part of the Great Game to establish influence in Central Asia. The British faced a disastrous retreat from Kabul.

First Anglo-Sikh War (1845–1846): Fought between the British East India Company and the Sikh Empire under successors of Maharaja Ranjit Singh. It ended with the Treaty of Lahore (1846), leading to British control over parts of Punjab.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

27. The Gobi Desert is spread across which of the following countries?

1. Mongolia

2. China

3. Russia

4. Kazakhstan

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(A) Only 1 and 2

(B) Only 1, 2 and 4

(D) Only 1

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

The Gobi Desert is a vast cold desert located in northern China and southern Mongolia. It is the largest desert in Asia and the fifth-largest in the world, known for its extreme temperature variations and sparse vegetation. It does not extend into Russia or Kazakhstan.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

28. Which of the following two are the major constituent of Bio-gas ?

Methane

2. Butane

3. Carbon dioxide

4. Carbon monoxide

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(A) 1 and 3

(B) 3 and 4

(D) 1 and 2

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Biogas is a renewable energy source composed of methane, carbon dioxide, and other trace compounds produced from anaerobic digestion of organic matter. It consists of methane (50–75%), carbon dioxide (25–50%), and smaller amounts of nitrogen (2–8%).

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

29. ‘AdiKarmyogiBeta Version - A Responsive Governance Initiative’ was launched by which of the following ministry in June 2025?

1. Ministry of AYUSH

2. Ministry of Women and Child Development

3. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

4. Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(A) Only 1 and 2

(B) Only 4

(D) Only 1

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Adi Karmyogi (Beta Version)” is a government initiative by India’s Ministry of Tribal Affairs aimed at building a cadre of empowered officers and grassroots change-makers for more effective governance in tribal areas.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

30. Arrange the following conquests of Alauddin Khalji in correct chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below.

1. Ranthambore

2. Jaisalmer

3. Warangal

4. Chittor

Code :

(A) 1, 2, 3, 4

(B) 2, 1, 4, 3

(D) 1, 2, 4, 3

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Alauddin Khalji (reigned 1296–1316) was one of the most notable rulers of the Khalji dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate. His reign is marked by several significant military conquests, administrative reforms, and a strong centralization of power. Here are some key aspects of his rule:

The correct chronological order of Alauddin Khalji’s conquests are: Jaisalmer (1299), Ranthambore (1301), Chittor (1303) and Warangal (1309).

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

31. With reference to hydroelectricity in North India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

There are huge possibilities of hydroelectricity in the Himalayan region.
Eastern Uttar Pradesh and Bihar cannot utilise this potential because the Himalayas situated to their North lies in boundary of Nepal.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(A) Only 2

(B) Neither 1 nor 2

(D) Only 1

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

According to the Reassessment Study conducted by the Central Electricity Authority (CEA) between 1978-1987, the assessed hydroelectric power potential in India is approximately 145,320 MW. The Himalayan region in North India offers significant potential for hydropower generation due to its steep terrain, abundant water resources, and fast-flowing rivers such as the Indus, Ganga, and Brahmaputra.

Though the Himalayas lie to the north of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar, both states can still tap into the hydropower potential in the region. For example, rivers like the Kosi and Gandak, which originate in the Himalayas, have the potential to be harnessed for hydropower generation.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

32. Which of the following districts is/are part of theDevipatanDivision in Uttar Pradesh ?

1. Basti

2. Bahraich

3. Balrampur

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) Only 1

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Devipatan division consists of four districts namely- Gonda, Balrampur, Behraich and Shravasti, and is headed by the Divisional Commissioner of Devipatan. The Commissioner is the head of local government institutions in the division and is in charge of infrastructure development in the division. He/she is also responsible for maintaining law and order in the division.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

33. Consider the formation of the following States of India and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from the earliest to the last.

1. Punjab

2. Arunachal Pradesh

3. Nagaland

4. Sikkim

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) 3, 2, 4, 1

(b) 3, 4, 1, 2

(d) 2, 3, 4, 1

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Article 2 empowers the Parliament to ‘admit into the Union of India, or establish, new states on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit.

States	Year	Features
Nagaland	1963	Became the 16th state of India on 1st December 1963, carved out of Assam
Punjab	1966	The Constitution of India (1950) classified the Indian Union into Part A, Part B, Part C, and Part D States, with Punjab listed as a Part A State. Following the States Reorganisation Act of 1956, the Patiala and East Punjab States Union (PEPSU) was merged with Punjab. Subsequently, based on the Shah Commission’s recommendations (1966), the Punjabi-speaking areas formed the new State of Punjab, the Hindi-speaking regions became Haryana.
Sikkim	1975	Became the 22nd state of India on 16 May 1975, after a referendum ended the monarchy.
Arunachal Pradesh	1987	Achieved statehood on 20 February 1987, after being a Union Territory (from 1972).

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

34. With reference to ‘Uttar Pradesh’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Uttar Pradesh is the leading producer of potato in the country.

2. Government of India has approved for establishment of South Asia Regional Centre of International Potato Centre at Aligarh.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Uttar Pradesh is the leading producer of potato in India, consistently accounting for about 30-33% of the nation’s total production.

The Government of India has approved the establishment of the South Asia Regional Centre of the International Potato Centre (CIP), but it is located at Singna, Agra, Uttar Pradesh—not at Aligarh.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

35. Arrange the following States of India in the ascending orderon the basis oftheir area and select the correct answer from the code given below.

1. Haryana

2. Himachal Pradesh

3. Punjab

4. Uttarakhand

Code:

(a) 1, 3, 2, 4

(b) 3, 1, 4, 2

(d) 1, 3, 4, 2

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

India is the 7th largest country in the world by area. India accounts for 2.4% of total world surface area. There are 28 states and 8 Union territories in the country. India covers an area of 32,87,263 sq. km.

Now, arranging them from smallest to largest area (ascending order):

Haryana (44,212) < Punjab (50,362) < Uttarakhand (53,483) < Himachal Pradesh (55,673).

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

36. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Generally an alloy of lead and tin is used as a material of the fuse wire.

Reason (R): Alloy of lead and tin has a higher melting point than copper and aluminium.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

The lead-tin alloy is commonly used for fuse wires due to its low melting point, which allows it to melt quickly and break the circuit when excessive current flows, preventing damage to electrical devices. Therefore, Assertion (A) is true.

The alloy of lead and tin has a lower melting point compared to copper and aluminium. Lead-tin alloys typically melt at around 180-300°C, whereas copper melts at 1085°C and aluminium at 660°C. Therefore, Reason (R) is false.

Thus, (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

37. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists.

List – I List – II

(State) (Highest Peak)

1. Tamil Nadu Dhupgarh

3. Rajasthan Doddabetta

4. Nagaland Guru Shikhar

5. Madhya Pradesh Saramati

Code:

(a) 2 3 1 4

(b) 3 2 4 1

(d) 2 3 4 1

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Peak	Location	Features
Doddabetta	Tamil Nadu	It is the highest peak in Tamil Nadu, located in the Nilgiri Hills.
Guru Shikhar	Rajasthan	It is the highest peak of the Aravalli Range
Saramati	Nagaland	It is the highest peak in, located along the Nagaland-Myanmar border.
Dhupgarh	Madhya Pradesh	It is the highest peak in, located in the Satpura Range.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

38. Operation Brahma was launched by India in March 2025 to provide humanitarian aid to which of the following countries?

Bangladesh

2. Myanmar

3. Sri Lanka

4. Malaysia

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Only 2 and 4

(d) Only 1

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

India launched Operation Brahma to provide necessary support, including Search and Rescue (SAR), humanitarian aid, disaster relief and medical assistance, following the devastating earthquake that struck Myanmar on 28th March 2025.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

39. With reference to Municipalities, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The eligible age to be a member of municipality is 25 years.

2. One-third of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in the municipalities is reserved for women.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both 1 and 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Municipalities in India are urban local bodies that provide local self-governance in towns and smaller cities. They are established and function under the constitutional framework introduced by the Constitution (Seventy-fourth Amendment) Act, 1992. This amendment added Part IXA to the Constitution, granting constitutional status to municipalities.

The minimum age required to contest municipal elections and become a member of a municipality in India is 21 years, as stipulated by the Constitution and state laws. There is a constitutional provision that mandates the reservation of one-third of seats (including those of chairpersons) for women in municipalities.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

40. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I List – II

(Important General/Viceroy) (contribution/work)

(A) Lord Dalhousie Permanent settlement of Bengal

(B) Lord Curzon Prohibition of Practice of Sati

(D) Lord Cornwallis Doctrine of Lapse

Code:

(a) 4 3 1 2

(b) 3 4 2 1

(d) 4 3 2 1

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Lord Dalhousie	Doctrine of Lapse	Annexation policy; introduced the Doctrine of Lapse, leading to annexation of Satara, Jhansi, Nagpur, etc.
Lord Curzon	Partition of Bengal	Carried out the Partition of Bengal in 1905 for administrative purposes.
Lord William Bentinck	Prohibition of Practice of Sati	Abolished Sati in 1829; also introduced English education
Lord Cornwallis	Permanent Settlement of Bengal	Introduced in 1793 under his administration

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

41. Consider the following events and arrange them in correct chronological order.

1. Cripps Mission

2. Cabinet Mission

3. Shimla Conference

4. Wavell Plan

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1, 4, 3, 2

(b) 4, 1, 2, 3

(d) 1, 4, 2, 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Wavell Plan (1945)	The Wavell Plan, introduced by Viceroy Lord Wavell on 14th June 1945 proposed the formation of a new Executive Council comprising all Indian members, with the exception of the Governor-General and the Commander-in-Chief.
Cripps Mission (1942)	It was led by Sir Stafford Cripps in 1942, was a diplomatic effort by the British government to secure Indian support for the Allied war effort during World War II.
Cabinet Mission (1946)	The Cabinet Mission was a delegation sent by the British government to India led by Lord Pethick-Lawrence (Secretary of State for India), Sir Stafford Cripps (President of the Board of Trade), and A.V. Alexander (First Lord of Admiralty).
Shimla Conference (1945)	The Shimla Conference was convened by the British government on 24th June, 1945 to address the political crisis in India during World War II.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

With reference to Public Accounts Committee, which of the following statements is/are correct?

42. Public Accounts Committeesubmitsits report to the Lok Sabha.

Public Accounts Committee consists of 15 members from Rajya Sabha.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both 1 and 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

The Committee on Public Accounts was first set up in 1921 in the wake of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms.

The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is constituted annually under Rule 308 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha and submits its report to Lok Sabha.

The Committee consists of no more than 22 members, comprising 15 members elected by the Lok Sabha and up to 7 members from the Rajya Sabha.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

43. Which of the following gasses is/are lighter than air?

1. Hydrogen chloride

2. Sulfurdioxide

3. Helium

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) Only 1

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Helium (He) is lighter than air when released into the atmosphere it will rise.Hydrogen chloride (HCl) and sulfur dioxide (SO₂) are both heavier than air.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

44. With reference to ‘Atal Tunnel’ which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. This tunnel is the world’s longest highway tunnel.

2. This tunnel is built in the PirPanjalrange of Himalayas.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Atal Tunnel has officially been certified by World Book of Records as the ‘World’s Longest Highway Tunnel above 10,000 Feet’.

The Atal Tunnel cuts through a mountain to the west of the Rohtang Pass and reduces the distance between Solang Valley and Sissu by around 46 kilometers. The tunnel is constructed in the Pir Panjal range of the Himalayas.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

Note: UPPSC considers option (A) as the correct answer to this question.

45. With reference to ‘ozone layer’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Ozone layer shields the surface of the earth from the ultra-violet radiations from the sun.

2. Ozone depletion has been linked to the chlorofluorocarbons

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

The ozone layer shields the surface of the Earth from ultraviolet radiation from the Sun. Located in the stratosphere, it absorbs this radiation, preventing it from reaching the Earth’s surface and protecting living organisms from DNA damage.

Chlorofluorocarbons used in refrigerants and aerosols, release chlorine atoms in the stratosphere, which destroy ozone molecules leading to ozone layer depletion.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

46. Which of the following countries is/are NOT a member of the Gulf Cooperation Council?

Bahrain

2. Iran

3. Iraq

4. Qatar

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 2 and 3

(b) 3 and 4

(d) Only 1

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) is a regional intergovernmental political and economic union established in 1981 to promote coordination, integration, and unity among Arab states of the Persian Gulf.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

47. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Public Interest Litigation in India is essential for the rule of law.

Reason (R): Public Interest Litigation provides effective access of Justice to socially and economically weaker sections.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (a) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Public interest Litigation (PIL) means litigation filed in a court of law, for the protection of “Public Interest”, such as Pollution, Terrorism, Road safety, Constructional hazards etc. Any matter where the interest of the public at large is affected can be redressed by filing a PIL in a court of law.Therefore, Assertion (A) is true.

PIL provides effective access to justice for socially and economically weaker sections of society. It allows individuals or groups to raise matters that affect large sections of society, especially those who may not have the resources to seek justice otherwise.Therefore, Reason (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

48. Which one of the following books is NOT written by Kalidas?

Meghaduta

2. Raghuvamsam

3. ShringarShatak

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) Only 1

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Kalidasa is regarded as the greatest poet and dramatist of classical Sanskrit literature, known for his mastery of poetic expression, drama, and human emotions. He probably lived during the Gupta period (4th–5th century CE), an era often called the Golden Age of Indian culture.

Meghaduta and Raghuvamsam was written by Kalidasa.

Shringar Shatak is one of the three celebrated “Shatakas” (centuries of verses) written by Bhartṛhari, the other two being Neeti Shatak (on ethics and polity) and Vairagya Shatak (on renunciation).

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

49. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Buland Darwaja was constructed at Fatehpur Sikri by the Mughal emperor Akbar.

Reason (R): Akbar built this monument to commemorate the birth of his son Jahangir.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Buland Darwaza literally means Gate of Magnificence. Constructed using red sandstone, inlaid with white and black marble by Mughal Emperor Akbar in 1601 CE. The architecture reflects Mughal grandeur, combining Persian and Indian styles. Therefore, Assertion (A) is true.

The gateway bears Persian inscriptions that celebrate Akbar’s conquest of Gujarat. Therefore, Reason (R) is false.

Thus, (A) is true and (R) is false.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Port) List – II (State)

A. Paradeep 1. Tamil Nadu

B. Tuticorin 2. Kerala

C. Kakinada 3. Odisha

D. Alappuzha 4. Andhra Pradesh

Code:

A B C D

(a) 1 3 2 4

(b) 3 1 4 2

(d) 1 3 4 2

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Ports	Location	Features
Paradeep	Odisha	It is a major port located on the eastern coast of India in Odisha, near the Mahanadi river mouth.
Tuticorin	Tamil Nadu	Also known as V.O. Chidambaranar Port, it lies on the southeastern coast of Tamil Nadu.
Kakinada	Andhra Pradesh	It is a deep-water port that handles exports like rice, seafood, and petroleum products.
Alappuzha	Kerala	Historically, it was one of the oldest ports on the Malabar Coast. The port was developed under the rule of Maharaja Marthanda Varma of Travancore.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

51. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Sustainable development should take place without damaging the environment and development in the present time should not compromise with the needs of the future generations.

Reason (R): Agenda 21 was signed by world leaders in 1995.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Sustainable development refers to development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. It emphasizes environmental protection alongside economic and social progress.

Agenda 21 was adopted in 1992 at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), also known as the Earth Summit, held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

52. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I List – II

(Pulitzer award categories) (Awardee in 2025)

A. Fiction 1. Jason Roberts

B. Music 2.Branden Jacobs Jenkins

C. Biography 3. Susie Ibarra

D. Drama 4. Percival Everett

Code:

A B C D

(a) 3 4 2 1

(b) 4 3 1 2

(d) 3 4 1 2

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

The Pulitzer Prize is considered America’s most prestigious honor in the field of journalism. This award was started in the year 1917, which is administered by Columbia University and the ‘Pulitzer Prize Board’.

Fiction	James, by Percival Everett (Doubleday)
Music	Sky Islands, by Susie Ibarra
Drama	Purpose, by Branden Jacobs-Jenkins
Biography	Every Living Thing: The Great and Deadly Race to Know All Life, by Jason Roberts (Random House)

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

53. Which of the following enzymes is/are released in stomach for protein digestion?

1. Chymotrypsin

2. Trypsin

3. Pepsin

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Pepsin is the chief proteolytic enzyme secreted by the stomach. It is released in its inactive form, pepsinogen, by chief cells of the gastric glands. In the presence of hydrochloric acid (HCl), pepsinogen is converted to active pepsin, which breaks down proteins into smaller peptides. Trypsin and chymotrypsin are pancreatic enzymes, secreted into the small intestine (duodenum).

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

54. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): India has a Parliamentary system of Government.

Reason (R): In India, the executive is responsible to the legislature.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

India has adopted a Parliamentary system of government at both the Union and State levels, as stated in Article 74 (Union) and Article 163 (States) of the Constitution.

In the Parliamentary system, the Council of Ministers (executive) is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha (lower house of the legislature) under Article 75(3). This ensures accountability of the executive to the legislature.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

55. Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched?

(Pass) (State/Union Territory)

1. Lipulekh - Ladakh

2. NathuLa - Sikkim

3. Bomdila - Arunachal Pradesh

4. ShipkiLa - Himachal Pradesh

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 2, 3 and 4

(d) Only 1

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Pass	Features
Lipulekh Pass	It is a high-altitude mountain pass in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand
Shipki La Pass	It is located at the Indo-China border in Himachal Pradesh.
Bom di La	It is in Arunachal Pradesh
Nathu La	It is in Sikkim

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

56. Which among the following words were inserted in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitution Amendment?

1. Socialist

2. Secular

3. Sovereign

4. Republic

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 3 and 4

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

The Preamble to the Constitution of India is a brief introductory part that sets out the guiding principles and values of the Constitution.

The words “Socialist” and “Secular” were added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution through the Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

57. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I List – II

(Emperor) (City where Tomb is located)

A. Babur 1. Agra

B. Humayun 2. Lahore

C. Jahangir 3. Delhi

D. Shah Jahan 4. Kabul

Code:

A B C D

(a) 4 3 2 1

(b) 3 4 1 2

(d) 4 3 1 2

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

In India, tombs were built mainly for Muslim rulers to honor and remember the deceased. These structures showcase the architectural brilliance and artistry of the Mughal era and subsequent periods.

Emperor	Tomb
Babur	Kabul (Afghanistan)
Humayun	Delhi
Jahangir	Lahore
Shah Jahan	Agra

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

58. Which of the following Ramsar wetland site is/are NOT situated in Uttar Pradesh?

1. SarsaiNawar Jheel

2. SamaspurBird Sanctuary

3. RudrasagarLake

4. Sultanpur National Park

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 3 and 4

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Wetlands are areas where water dominates the environment, supporting unique plant and animal life. They form where the water table is near or above the land surface.

Ramsar sites in Uttar Pradesh: Upper Ganga River, Nawabganj Bird Sanctuary, Sandi Bird Sanctuary, Samaspur Bird Sanctuary, Saman Bird Sanctuary, Parvati Arga Bird Sanctuary, Sarsai Nawar Lake, Sur Sarovar Lake/Keetham Lake, Haidarpur Wetland, Bakhira Wildlife Sanctuary.

Rudrasagar Lake is located in Tripur and Sultanpur National Park is located in Haryana.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

59. Global Wage Report 2024-25 was released by which of the followingorganisation?

1. International Labour Organisation

2. World Bank

3. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) Only 1

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

The Global Wage Report is released by the International Labour Organisation (ILO). The 2024-25 report provides a detailed look at wage trends around the world and in different regions, highlighting changes in wage inequality and real wage growth.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

60. The Global Financial Stability Report is released by which among the following?

1. International Monetary Fund

2. World Economic Forum

3. World Bank

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) Only 1

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

The Global Financial Stability Report (GFSR) is released by the International Monetary Fund (IMF). This report assesses the stability of the global financial system and highlights potential risks and vulnerabilities that may affect financial markets and institutions.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

61.With reference to lichens, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Lichens arevery goodindicators of pollution.

2. Lichens grow well in polluted areas.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Lichens are a complex life form that is a symbiotic partnership of two separate organisms, a fungus and an algae.

Lichens are very good indicators of air pollution, especially sulphur dioxide (SO₂) and other atmospheric pollutants. They are highly sensitive to air quality changes and are often used as bioindicators in environmental studies.

Lichens do not grow well in polluted areas; in fact, they die or disappear when pollution levels are high.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched?

(Day) (Date)

1. International Ozone Day - 16 September

2. World Environment Day - 5 June

3. World Wildlife Day - 22 March

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 3

(b) Only 3

(d) Only 1

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

World Ozone Day is observed on the 16th of September each year, commemorating the signing of the Montreal Protocol in 1987.

World Environment Day (WED) 2025 is celebrated on 5th June. WED was established by the United Nations General Assembly in 1972.

United Nations World Wildlife Day (WWD) is celebrated every year on 3rd March to celebrate the vast array of wild animals and plants on our planet and raise awareness about the threats they face.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

63. With reference to ‘Brazil’ which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The equatorial rainforests of Brazil are called ‘Selvas’.

2. The dark black colour fertile land here is called ‘Terra Roxa’.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Brazil is located in the eastern part of South America; bordered by all South American countries except Chile and Ecuador. The equatorial rainforests of Brazil are called “Selvas”.

Terra Roxa are a broad stretch of nutrient-rich, deep reddish-purple soil. It extends across the Southeast and South regions, covering areas from central Rio Grande do Sul to southern Minas Gerais, and including large portions of Paraná and São Paulo states.

Note: UPPSC considers option (C) as the correct answer to this question.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

64. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I List – II

(Finance Commission) (Chairman)

A. Eleventh 1. Dr. C. Rangarajan

B. Twelfth 2. Dr. Y. V. Reddy

C. Thirteenth 3. Prof. A. M. Khusro

D. Fourteenth 4. Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar

Code:

A B C D

(a) 3 1 4 2

(b) 2 3 4 1

(d) 1 3 2 4

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

The Finance Commission is a constitutional body set up under Article 280 of the Constitution every five years to make recommendations on the distribution of financial resources between the Union and the states.

Finance Commission	Chairman
11th	Prof. A. M. Khusro
12th	Dr. C. Rangarajan
13th	Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar
14th	Dr. Y. V. Reddy

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

65. Which among the following is/are NOT a social indicator of poverty?

1. Illiteracy 2. Safe drinking water

2. Job opportunities 4. Size of the house

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 4

(d) Only 1

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

According to the World Bank, Poverty is pronounced deprivation in well-being, and comprises many dimensions. It includes low incomes and the inability to acquire the basic goods and services necessary for survival with dignity.

Analysis of poverty based on social exclusion and vulnerability is now becoming very common. Social indicators include illiteracy level, lack of general resistance due to malnutrition, lack of access to healthcare, lack of job opportunities, lack of access to safe drinking water, sanitation etc.

The global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is an international measure of acute multidimensional poverty covering over 100 developing countries. It complements traditional monetary poverty measures by capturing the acute deprivations in health, education, and living standards that a person faces simultaneously.

Living Standards is one of the dimensions of poverty in the MPI, which includes housing as a factor. It denotes that the household has inadequate housing materials in any of the three components: floor, roof, or walls. This measure does not consider the size of the house but only the completeness of its structure.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

66. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I List – II

(Lok Sabha) (Lok Sabha Speaker)

A. 11thLok Sabha 1. Om Birla

B. 12thLok Sabha 2. P. A. Sangma

C. 14thLok Sabha 3. Somnath Chatterjee

D. 17thLok Sabha 4. G. M. C.Balyogi

Code:

A B C D

(a) 2 4 3 1

(b) 4 2 3 1

(d) 2 3 4 1

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

The Speaker is the constitutional and ceremonial head of the House. Each House of Parliament has its own presiding officer. The Lok Sabha, which is the highest legislative body in the country, chooses its Speaker who presides over the day to day functioning of the House.

Lok Sabha Term	Speaker
11th	Purno Agitok Sangma (P. A. Sangma)
12th	G. M. C. Balayogi
14th	Somnath Chatterjee
17th	Om Birla

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

67. With reference to the Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle, 1748, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The first Carnatic war ended.

2. Madras was returned to the British.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

The First Carnatic War ended in 1748 when the Treaty of Aix-La Chapelle was signed bringing the Austrian War of Succession to a conclusion.

Under the terms of this treaty, Madras was handed back to the English, and the French, in turn, got their territories in North America.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

68. Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched?

(City) (River)

Budapest - Danube

Cologne - Rhine

New Orleans - Missouri

Hyderabad - Paleru

(India)

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 1, 2 and 3

(b) Only 3 and 4

(d) Only 1 and 2

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

City	Features
Budapest	Budapest, the capital of Hungary, is located along the Danube River
Cologne	A major city in Germany, is situated on the Rhine River
New Orleans	New Orleans is located along the Mississippi River, not the Missouri River.
Hyderabad (India)	Hyderabad is located along the MusI River, not the Paleru River

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

69. With reference to ‘Baking Soda’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is Sodium hydrogen carbonate.

2. It is used in fire extinguishers.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Baking Soda also known as sodium hydrogen carbonate is produced using sodium chloride as one of the raw materials.

It is used as an ingredient in antacids. Being alkaline, it neutralises excess acid in the stomach and provides relief. It is also used in soda-acid fire extinguishers.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

70. Which of the following prepared the Annual Groundwater Quality Report 2024?

1. Central Pollution Control Board

2. Central Water Commission

3. Central Groundwater Board

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) Only 1

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

The Annual Groundwater Quality Report 2024 is prepared by the Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.

Key Findings:

As of 2023, 440 districts reported excessive nitrate levels, up from 359 districts in 2017.

Highest nitrate contamination recorded in Rajasthan (49%).

Post-monsoon nitrate levels rise—32.66% of samples exceeded limits after monsoon compared to 30.77% pre-monsoon.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

71. Who among the following were the members of the Fazal Ali Commission?

1. K. T. Shah 2. K. M. Panikkar

2. P.Sitaramaiah 4. H. N.Kunjaru

3. Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(d) 1 and 2

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

The Fazl Ali Commission, also known as the States Reorganisation Commission, was appointed in December 1953 by the Indian government to recommend the reorganization of state boundaries, primarily based on language.

Headed by Justice Fazal Ali, the commission recommended creating 16 states and 3 Union Territories, with H.N. Kunzru and K.M. Panikkar as members, the Commission submitted its report in 1955. It rejected the idea of linguistic states as the sole criterion.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

72. Consider the following and arrange them in the correct chronological order.

1. Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation

2. Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission

3. Jal Jeevan Mission

4. National Urban Housing and Habitat Policy

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 2, 4, 1, 3

(b) 4, 2, 1, 3

(d) 4, 2, 3, 1

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM): Launched in 2005 as the first flagship scheme, it aimed for the integrated development of slums, providing shelter and basic services. Since 2015, it has continued as the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT).

National Urban Housing & Habitat Policy: Launched in 2007, it seeks to promote various types of public-private partnerships to realize the goal of “Affordable Housing for All”, with a special emphasis on the urban poor.

Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT): Launched on 25th June 2015, this mission focuses on improving basic urban infrastructure and driving reforms in areas such as water supply, sewerage, and drainage.

Jal Jeevan Mission: Launched on 15th August 2019, this mission aims to provide tap water to every rural household by 2024 (extended till 2028), targeting 55 liters per person per day.

Water on the Earth’s surface
Reservoir	Volume (Million Cubic km)	Percentage of the Total
Oceans	1.370	97.25
Ice Caps and Glaciers	29	2.05
Groundwater	9.5	0.68
Lakes	0.125	0.01
Soil Moisture	0.065	0.005
Atmosphere	0.013	0.001
Streams and Rivers	0.0017	0.0001
Biosphere	0.0006	0.00004

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

73. With reference to ‘earthworms’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Earthworms improves soil fertility and are known as farmer’s friends.

2. Earthworm has two pair of hearts.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Earthworms play a crucial role in enhancing soil health by aerating the soil, mixing organic matter, increasing nutrient availability, and producing nutrient-rich castings (worm manure). Their activity improves soil structure, fertility, and moisture retention, making them invaluable allies for farmers.

Earthworms do not have two pairs of hearts; instead, they have a series of four pairs of aortic arches that function like hearts to pump blood throughout their bodies.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

74. Arrange the following saints in correct chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below.

1. Nanak

2. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu

3. Namdev

4. Kabir

Code:

(a) 3, 4, 2, 1

(b) 4, 3, 1, 2

(d) 4, 3, 2, 1

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Namdev(1270–1350 CE) was a prominent saint of the Bhakti movement in medieval India, particularly known for his devotional hymns to Lord Vithoba (Vitthala) of Pandharpur, Maharashtra.

Guru Nanak Dev (1469-1539) was the founder of Sikhism and the first of the ten Sikh Gurus.

Kabir (1440–1518 CE) was one of the most influential Bhakti movement saints in India, known for his simple yet profound spiritual teachings that transcended religious boundaries. He preached devotion to a formless God (Nirguna Bhakti) and rejected rituals, caste, and dogma.

Chaitanya Mahaprabhu (1486–1534) was a revered saint, social reformer, and the founder of the Gaudiya Vaishnavism tradition in India. He is considered an incarnation of Lord Krishna by his followers and is particularly known for spreading the practice of chanting the Hare Krishna mantra as a means of devotion and spiritual liberation.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

75. Which of the following is/are NOT a cold ocean current?

1. Agulhas current

2. Brazil current

3. Humboldt current

4. California current

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 2

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Ocean currents are the continuous, predictable, directional movement of seawater. It is a massive movement of ocean water that is caused and influenced by various forces.

Agulhas current	It is a warm ocean current that flows along the southeastern coast of Africa, from the Indian Ocean towards the southern tip of Africa.
Brazil current	It is a warm ocean current that flows along the eastern coast of South America, moving northward along the Brazilian coast.
Humboldt current	It is a cold ocean current that flows northward along the western coast of South America.
California current	It is a cold ocean current that flows southward along the western coast of North America

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

76. With reference to ‘Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It was developed and introduced in 2010.

2. It measures extreme poverty and includes those living on less than one dollar per day.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Global Multidimensional Poverty Index is a key international resource that measures acute multidimensional poverty across more than 100 developing countries.

It was first launched in 2010 by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative.

The MPI does not use income-based measures like “less than one dollar per day” instead it identifies poverty through non-monetary indicators such as nutrition, child mortality etc.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

77. Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched?

(Acid) (Acid found in)

1. Lactic acid - Curd

2. Tartaric acid - Grapes

3. Acetic acid - Potato

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) Only 1

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Lactic acid: It is produced when bacteria ferment the lactose in milk, causing it to curdle and turn into curd or yogurt.

Tartaric acid: Is naturally found in grapes and other fruits like tamarind and bananas.

Acetic acid: Is the main component of vinegar, is found in fermented foods, but not typically in potatoes. Potatoes mainly contain citric acid in small amounts.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

78. With reference to the ‘Indian Ocean’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It was called by the Ancient Greeks as Erythraean Sea.

2. It is spread on the either side of equator.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Indian Ocean, body of salt water covering approximately one-fifth of the total ocean area of the world. It is the smallest, geologically youngest, and physically most complex of the world’s three major oceans (Pacific, Atlantic, and Indian).

The term “Erythraean Sea” was indeed used by ancient Greek and Roman writers, including in the Periplus of the Erythraean Sea, to describe a vast region of the north-western part of the Indian Ocean.

The Indian Ocean spans both the northern and southern hemispheres, extending across the equator. It covers regions on either side, from the east coast of Africa to the western coast of Australia.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

79. Arrange the following events in correct chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below.

Battle of Kannauj

2. Battle ofDaurah

3. Battle ofSamugarh

4. Battle ofChausa

Code:

(a) 2, 4, 3, 1

(b) 4, 2, 1, 3

(d) 2, 4, 1, 3

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Battle of Daurah (1532 CE): This battle took place early in Humayun’s reign, when Sher Khan (Sher Shah Suri) was still consolidating his power. Humayun defeated the Afghans at Daurah and then proceeded to lay siege to the Chunar fort.

Battle of Chausa (1539): Fought between Sher Shah Suri and Humayun. Sher Shah defeated Humayun in this battle.

Battle of Kannauj (1540): Fought between Sher Shah Suri and Humayun again, resulting in Sher Shah’s victory and the establishment of the Suri Empire.

Battle of Samugarh (1658 CE): This was a crucial battle in the succession struggle among the sons of Shah Jahan, namely Dara Shikoh, Aurangzeb, Shuja, and Murad Baksh. Fought near Agra, Aurangzeb decisively defeated Dara Shikoh, who was seen as the heir apparent to the Mughal throne.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

80. Which of the following statements with reference to ‘blood’ is/are correct?

1. Blood is composed of plasma anddifferent typesof cells.

2. The presence of haemoglobin makes blood appear red.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Blood is composed of plasma and different types of cells. Blood consists of two main components

Plasma, the liquid portion, which contains water, salts, proteins, and other substances.

Blood cells, which include red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs), and platelets.

Haemoglobin, a protein found in red blood cells, binds to oxygen and gives blood its characteristic red color. The red color is particularly noticeable when haemoglobin is oxygenated (bright red) or deoxygenated (dark red).

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

81. Who among the following Indian novelists and journalists is/are part of thefive memberjury for the 2026 International Booker Prize?

Natasha Brown

2. Kiran Desai

3. Nilanjana S. Roy

4. Rajni Chauhan

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 2 and 3

(b) 3 and 4

(d) Only 1

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

The International Booker Prize recognises the vital work of translation, with the £50,000 prize money divided equally between the winning author and translators.

Nilanjana S. Roy is a renowned Indian author and columnist, best known for her works in both fiction and non-fiction and is part of five member jury for the 2026 International Booker Prize.

She is the author of “The Wildings”, a critically acclaimed novel that explores the lives of stray cats in Delhi, and “The Hundred Names of Darkness”, a sequel to her debut novel.

Other members of the jury are Natasha Brown, Sophie Hughes, Marcus du Sautoy, Troy Onyango.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

82. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I List – II

(Committees of Constituent Assembly) (Chairman of Committees)

A. Union Constitution 1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad Committee

Rules of Procedure 2. J. B. Kripalani Committee

Drafting Committee 3. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

Fundamental Rights 4. Jawaharlal Nehru Sub-committee

Code:

A B C D

(a) 2 1 3 4

(b) 1 4 3 2

(d) 1 2 3 4

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Committee	Chairman
Union Constitution Committee	Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Rules of Procedure Committee	Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Drafting Committee	Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
Fundamental Rights Sub-committee	J. B. Kripalani

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

83. Consider the following and arrange them in correct chronological order.

1. Jawahar Rojgar Yojana

2. Development of women and children in Rural Areas

3. Integrated Rural Development Programme

4. National Rural Employment Programme

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 3, 4, 1, 2

(b) 4, 3, 2, 1

(d) 3, 4, 2, 1

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP): It was rolled out nationwide in 1980 but it was launched in 1978. IRDP aimed to create full employment opportunities in rural areas, focusing on improving the economic conditions of the rural poor through self-employment and skill development.

National Rural Employment Programme (NREP): Launched in 1980, NREP was a centrally sponsored scheme aimed at generating wage employment in rural areas through public works and asset creation, focusing on addressing unemployment and improving rural infrastructure.

Development of Women and Children in Rural Areas: It was launched in 1982 by the Government of India under the Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP).

Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY): Launched on 1st April 1989, JRY was formed by merging the National Rural Employment Programme (NREP) and the Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP). Its goal was to provide wage employment through public works while focusing on asset creation in rural areas.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer

84. Which of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with only one other district of Uttar Pradesh?

Lalitpur

2. Saharanpur

3. Sonbhadra

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) All 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Lalitpur shares its boundary with only one district in Uttar Pradesh, which is Jhansi in the state of Uttar Pradesh.

Saharanpur shares its boundary with multiple districts in Uttar Pradesh and neighboring states like Haryana and Uttarakhand.

Sonbhadra shares its boundary with four districts of Uttar Pradesh and also with states like Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

85. With reference to Panchayati Raj Institutions in India which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Tenure of Panchayati Raj Institutions shall be of 5 years.

2. In Panchayati Raj Institutions, out of the seats reserved, 1/4 of the seats shall be reserved for women belonging to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

PRI was constitutionalized through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 to build democracy at the grass roots level and was entrusted with the task of rural development in the country.

Seats at all levels to be filled by direct elections Article 243C (2). One third of the seats reserved for SCs and STs are also reserved for women.

Uniform five year term and elections to constitute new bodies to be completed before the expiry of the term.

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Writer) List – II (Book)

A. Trivikram Bhatta 1. Gita Govinda

B. Somdev 2. Brihatkathamanjari

C. Jaidev 3. NalChampu

D. Kshemendra 4. Katha Sarit Sagar

Code:

A B C D

(a) 3 4 1 2

(b) 4 3 2 1

(d) 3 4 2 1

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Trivikram Bhatta is known for Nal Champu, a work in Sanskrit literature.

Somdev is the author of the Katha Sarit Sagar, an extensive collection of stories from Indian folklore.

Jaidev is famous for his work Gita Govinda, a lyrical poem in Sanskrit that describes the love of Lord Krishna and Radha. Kshemendra wrote the Brihatkathamanjari, which is a collection of stories based on the Katha Sarit Sagar.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

87. Which of the following archaeological sites related to Indus Valley civilization are situated in present day Uttar Pradesh?

1. Mandi

2. Rakhigarhi

3. Hulas

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) Only 1

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

The history of India begins with the birth of the Indus Valley Civilization (IVC), also known as Harappan Civilization. It flourished around 2,500 BC, in the western part of South Asia, in contemporary Pakistan and Western India.

Mandi is an Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC) site located in Muzaffarnagar and Hulas is located in the Saharanpur district of Uttar Pradesh.

Rakhigarhi is the largest Indian site of the Indus Valley Civilization (IVC) and is located in the Hisar district of Haryana.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

88. Consider the following sources of world water supply and arrange them in descending order.

1. Oceans

2. Rivers

3. Polar ice and Glaciers

4. Ground water

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1, 3, 4, 2

(b) 1, 2, 4, 3

(d) 1, 4, 3, 2

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

The distribution of world’s water supply in descending order of volume is as follows:

Oceans: The vast majority of the Earth’s water is contained in oceans (~97.5%), which makes up the largest source of water.

Polar Ice and Glaciers: About 2.05% of the world’s freshwater is stored in polar ice caps and glaciers.

Groundwater: Groundwater constitutes about 0.68% of the world’s freshwater supply.

Rivers: Rivers hold only about 0.0001% of the Earth’s freshwater, which is much smaller in comparison to other sources.

Therefore, the correct order is: Oceans > Polar ice and Glaciers > Groundwater > Rivers.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

89. Which of the following is/are a Financial Committee of Parliament in India?

1. Public Accounts Committee

2. Estimate Committee

3. Committee on Public Undertakings

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) All 1, 2 and 3

(d) Only 1

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

The Public Accounts Committee is responsible for examining the accounts of the Government of India, especially those relating to public expenditure. It scrutinizes the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG).

The Estimate Committee reviews the estimates of the expenditure to be incurred by the government. It ensures that the expenditure plans of the government are in line with its priorities and economic conditions.

The Committee on Public Undertakings examines the working of public sector enterprises and undertakings, scrutinizing their performance, budgets, and financial management.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists.

List – I List – II

(National Park/Wildlife Sanctuary) (State/Union Territory)

A. Dachigam 1. Madhya Pradesh

B. Keoladeo 2. Rajasthan

C. Kanha 3. Kerala

D. Periyar 4. Jammu and Kashmir

Code:

A B C D

(a) 4 2 3 1

(b) 2 4 1 3

(d) 4 2 1 3

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Dachigam National Park is located 22 km (kilometer) from Srinagar in Jammu and Kashmir. The name literally stands for ‘ten villages’, which could be in memory of the ten villages that were relocated in order to create the park.

Keoladeo National Park is a wetland and bird sanctuary located in Bharatpur, Rajasthan. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and one of the most important bird-watching areas in the world.

Kanha National Park is nestled in the Maikal range of Satpuras in Madhya Pradesh. The national park is being popularized as the Tiger reserve.

Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary, wildlife preserve in south-central Kerala state, southern India. The sanctuary is noted for herds of Asian elephants.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

91. Which of the following countries is/are NOT a member of the ‘Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Co-operation (BIMSTEC)’?

Thailand

2. Nepal

3. Bhutan

4. Indonesia

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 2 and 3

(b) Only 4

(d) Only 1

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a regional multilateral organisation. Its members lie in the littoral and adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal constituting a contiguous regional unity.

Out of the 7 members, five are from South Asia: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, and Sri Lanka, and two are from Southeast Asia: Myanmar and Thailand.

Therefore, option (B) is the correct answer.

Which of the following pair is/are NOT correctly matched?

(Dam) (River)

1. Baglihar Dam – Chenab

2. PandohDam – Ravi

3.Srisailam Dam – Tungabhadra

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) Only 1

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

The Baglihar Dam is located on the Chenab River in Jammu and Kashmir.

The Pandoh Dam is built on the Beas River, not the Ravi River. It is located in Himachal Pradesh.

The Srisailam Dam is built on the Krishna River, not the Tungabhadra River. It is located on the border of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

93. With reference to Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats and Tangible Income (MISHTI), which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It wasinitiatedin 2019.

2. It aims to restore Mangrove forests.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

As a part of Budget Announcement 2023-24, the Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI) has been launched on 5th June 2023 to restore and promote mangroves as unique, natural eco-system and for preserving and enhancing the sustainability of the coastal habitats.

The objective of MISHTI is to restore mangrove forests by undertaking mangrove reforestation/ afforestation measures along the coast of India.

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

94. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The Himalayas form source of several large perennial rivers.

Reason (R): The higher ranges of Himalayas are snow covered throughout the year.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

The Himalayas are the source of major perennial rivers like the Indus, Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Mahanadi. These rivers flow throughout the year due to the melting of snow from the mountains. Therefore, Assertion (A) is true.

The higher altitudes of the Himalayas, particularly above the snowline, remain snow-covered throughout the year. The melting snow from these areas feeds the perennial rivers in the region.Therefore, Reason (R) is true.

Thus, both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

95. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The territories of the Sultanate could be broadly divided into two parts – the Khalsa and the Jagirs.

Reason (R): The Jagirs comprised of the land under the control of the State.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

The territories of the Sultanate were indeed divided into two main parts:

Khalsa: The land directly controlled by the Sultan and the State.

Jagirs: Lands that were granted to nobles, officials, or military commanders in exchange for their services. These lands were not directly under the control of the State, but were managed by these officials.Therefore, Assertion (A) is true.

Jagirs were not directly under State control. They were lands granted to individuals (such as military officers or nobles) who had control over them and were responsible for revenue collection, but the land did not belong to the State itself. The State had more direct control over Khalsa lands.Therefore, Reason (R) is false.

Thus, (A) is true and (R) is false.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I List – II

(Padmavibhushan Fields 2025) (Awardee 2025)

A. Trade and Industry 1. ShriLakshminara- yana Subramaniam

B. Literature and 2. Shri Osamu Suzuki Education

C. Medicine 3. Shri M. T. Vasudevan Nair

D. Art 4. Shri D. Nageshwar Reddy

Code:

A B C D

(a) 3 2 1 4

(b) 2 3 4 1

(d) 3 2 4 1

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Padma Awards - one of the highest civilian Awards of the country, are conferred in three categories, namely, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri. The Awards are given in various disciplines/ fields of activities, viz.- art, social work, public affairs etc.

SN	Name	Field	State/Country
1.	Shri Duvvur Nageshwar Reddy	Medicine	Telangana
2.	Shri Lakshminarayana Subramaniam	Art	Karnataka
3.	Shri M. T. Vasudevan Nair (Posthumous)	Literature and Education	Kerala
4.	Shri Osamu Suzuki (Posthumous)	Trade and Industry	Japan

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

97. Pushkar Kumbh Mela 2025 was held in May 2025 in which of the following State(s)?

Rajasthan

2. Uttar Pradesh

3. Uttarakhand

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) Only 1

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

The Pushkar Kumbh commenced at Keshav Prayag in Mana village (Chamoli district), Uttarakhand after 12 years, attracting large numbers of pilgrims.

The Pushkar Kumbh, observed when Jupiter enters Gemini, is a significant event in Hindu tradition, attracting Vaishnavite devotees, particularly from southern India.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

98. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Dolphins and Whales breathe through blowholes.

2. Earthworm breathe through their skin.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Dolphins and whales, being mammals, breathe air through blowholes located on top of their heads. The blowhole allows them to expel air and inhale oxygen when they surface.

Earthworms do not have lungs. They absorb oxygen and release carbon dioxide through their moist skin, which needs to remain damp for this process to occur.

Therefore, option () is the correct answer.

99. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The concept of National Integration involves political, economic, social, cultural and psychological dimensions and inter-relation between them.

Reason (R): The National Integration Council was constituted in 1961 on the principle of ‘Unity in Diversity’.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

The concept of National Integration indeed encompasses political, economic, social, cultural, and psychological dimensions that are interrelated. National integration focuses on creating unity and cohesiveness in a diverse society.Therefore, Assertion (A) is true.

The National Integration Council (NIC) was established in 1961 with the goal of promoting national unity and integrating the diverse cultural, linguistic, and regional groups in India. Its principle of ‘Unity in Diversity’ emphasizes the strength of India’s diversity within the context of a unified nation.Therefore, Reason (R) is true.

Thus, both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

100. Consider the following elements found in a typical 70 kg man and arrange them in correct increasing order.

Sodium
Potassium
Copper
Iron

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 4, 3, 1, 2

(b) 3, 4, 2, 1

(d) 4, 3, 2, 1

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

The human body consists of various elements in different quantities, each fulfilling specific physiological functions. While oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen make up the majority of the body’s mass, trace elements like copper and iron are crucial for processes such as enzyme function and oxygen transport. Additionally, sodium and potassium are vital electrolytes that regulate nerve signaling and maintain fluid balance.

The correct increasing order of abundance of the given elements in a typical 70 kg man is: Copper (0.06 grams) < Iron (5 grams) < Sodium (90 grams) < Potassium (170 grams).

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

101. Consider the following Committees relating to poverty and arrange their formation in correct chronological order.

1. Lakdawala Committee

2. Rangarajan Committee

3. Tendulkar Committee

4. Dandekar and Rath Committee

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 4, 1, 2, 3

(b) 1, 4, 3, 2

(d) 4, 1, 3, 2

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

VM Dandekar and N Rath (1971), made the first systematic assessment of poverty in India, based on National Sample Survey (NSS) data.

The Lakdawala Committee (1993), was a Task Force constituted by the Planning Commission of India to review the methodology for poverty estimation.

It was based on the assumption that the basket of goods and services used to calculate the Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) and Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL) reflects the consumption patterns of the poor.

The Tendulkar Committee (2009) expert group constituted by the Planning Commission and chaired by Suresh Tendulkar, was constituted to review methodology for poverty estimation and to address the shortcomings of the previous methods.

The Rangarajan Committee (2012) recommended higher poverty lines than the Tendulkar Committee. It included improved estimates for nutrition, health, and education expenditures.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

101. Which of the following languages is/are NOT included in the Eighth Schedule of Indian Constitution?

1. Nepal

2. Dogri

3. Bodo

4. Bhojpuri

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 4

(d) Only 1

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Eighth Schedule lists the official languages of the republic of India. Part XVII of the Indian constitution deals with the official languages in Articles 343 to 351.

It consists of the following 22 languages: Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Bodo, Santhali, Maithili and Dogri.

Bhojpuri is spoken mainly in the Bhojpur–Purvanchal region of India. However it is not among the 22 official languages.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

103. With reference to ‘acid and bases’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Acidic solutions have pH more than 7.

2. Basic solutions have pH less than 7.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Acidic solutions have a pH less than 7. The pH scale ranges from 0 to 14.

Basic (or alkaline) solutions have a pH greater than 7.

The neutral point on the pH scale is exactly 7, where the concentration of hydrogen ions equals that of hydroxide ions.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

104. Consider the tenure of the following Presidents of India and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from earliest to the last.

1. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy

2. K.R. Narayanan

3. A.P.JAbdul Kalam

4. R. Venkataraman

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1, 4, 2, 3

(b) 4, 1, 3, 2

(d) 1, 4, 3, 2

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

President	Term
Neelam Sanjiva Reddy	1977 to 1982
R. Venkataraman	1987 to 1992
K. R. Narayanan	1997 to 2002
A. P. J. Abdul Kalam	2002 to 2007

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

105. Four Buddhist Councils were held at the following places. Arrange them incorrectchronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below.

1. Vaishali

2. Rajagriha

3. Kundalvana

4. Pataliputra

Code:

(a) 1, 2, 4, 3

(b) 2, 1, 3, 4

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

The correct chronological order of the places where the Four Buddhist Councils were held is: Rajagriha, Vaishali, Pataliputra, Kundalvana.

First Buddhist Council: Rajagriha (c. 483 BCE)

Second Buddhist Council: Vaishali (c. 383 BCE)

Third Buddhist Council: Pataliputra (c. 247 BCE)

Fourth Buddhist Council: Kundalvana (Kashmir; 1st century CE, c. 72 CE)

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

106. Match List - I with List - II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List - I List -II

(Nuclear Power Plant) (State)

A. Kudankulam 1. Karnataka

B. Kakrapar 2. Tamil Nadu

C. Kaiga 3. Rajasthan

D. Rawatbhata 4. Gujarat

Code:

A B C D

(a) 4 2 1 3

(b) 2 4 3 1

(d) 4 2 3 1

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant is located in Tamil Nadu, specifically in the Tirunelveli district. It is the largest nuclear power plant in India.

Kakrapar Nuclear Power Plant is located in Gujarat.

Kaiga Nuclear Power Plant is located in Karnataka.

Rawatbhata Nuclear Power Plant is located in Rajasthan.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

107. Who among the following had won the International Booker Prize in 2025?

1. Banu Mushtaq

2. DeepaBhasthi

3. Sanjay

4. Chauhan

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) Only 1

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

“Heart Lamp,” a short story collection by Banu Mushtaq, translated into English by Deepa Bhasthi, became the first Kannada work to win the 2025 International Booker Prize, marking a historic moment for Indian regional literature.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

108. Match List - I with List - II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List - I (Iron-ore Mines) List - II (State)

A. Gurumahisani 1. Jharkhand

B. Bailadila 2. Karnataka

C. Noamundi 3. Odisha

D. Kudremukh 4. Chhattisgarh

Code:

A B C D

(a) 3 4 2 1

(b) 4 3 1 2

(d) 3 4 1 2

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Gurumahisani (Odisha): Located in Mayurbhanj district, it was India’s first iron ore mine, discovered in 1911 by the Tata group.

Bailadila (Chhattisgarh): A major iron ore mining region in Dantewada district, known for high-grade hematite ore.

Noamundi (Jharkhand): One of the oldest and largest iron ore mines in Singhbhum district, operated by Tata Steel.

Kudremukh (Karnataka): A magnetite iron ore deposit located in the Western Ghats, developed by Kudremukh Iron Ore Company Limited (KIOCL).

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

109. With reference to ‘International Solar Alliance’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is the first treaty based Inter-governmental organisation headquartered in India with 38 member countries.

2. World Solar Bank and One Sun One World One Grid Initiative wereinitiatedunder it.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2 (b) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

The International Solar Alliance (ISA) is a collaborative, action-oriented platform driven by its members to enhance the deployment of solar energy technologies. Conceived as a joint initiative by India and France, the ISA aims to combat climate change through the widespread adoption of solar energy solutions. As of 2025, the International Solar Alliance (ISA) has 124 member and signatory countries.

The ISA has launched several collaborative initiatives, including the World Solar Bank and the One Sun One World One Grid (OSOWOG) initiative. These efforts are designed to integrate global solar energy resources and financing, aligning with ISA’s vision to scale the deployment of solar energy worldwide.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

110 Joint special forces exercise ‘KHANJAR-XII’ was held in March 2025 between India and which of the following Countries?

1. Russia

2. Turkmenistan

3. Kyrgyzstan

4. Mongolia

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 2 and 3

(b) 3 and 4

(d) Only 1

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

The 12th edition of the India-Kyrgyzstan Joint Special Forces Exercise KHANJAR-XII is being held in Kyrgyzstan.

Initiated in 2011, it is an annual exercise conducted alternately in both countries.

The Indian Army’s Parachute Regiment (Special Forces) and Kyrgyzstan’s Scorpion Brigade are participating.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

111. Which of the following Department prepares the National Indicator Framework Progress Report related to Sustainable Development Goals in Uttar Pradesh?

1. Department of Finance

2. Department of Education

3. Department of Planning

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) Only 1

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

The National Indicator Framework (NIF) is an SDG monitoring framework developed by the Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation, Government of India to track progress on Sustainable Development Goals using a set of indicators.

At the state level, the Department of Planning, Uttar Pradesh prepares the state’s progress report aligning with NIF, presenting comparisons of state values with national ones across goals and indicators.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

112. With reference to ‘Isotopes’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Atoms with identical atomic numbers but different atomic mass numbers are known as isotopes.

2. Protium, Deuterium and Tritium are isotopes of carbon.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Isotopes are atoms of the same element (i.e., having the same atomic number) but with different atomic mass numbers due to varying numbers of neutrons. For example, Carbon-12 and Carbon-14 are isotopes of carbon.

Protium, Deuterium, and Tritium are isotopes of hydrogen, not carbon.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

113. Match List - I with List - II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List - I (Schedule) List - II (Subject)

A. 7thSchedule 1. Languages

B. 8thSchedule 2.Disqualification on ground of defection

C. 9thSchedule 3.Union, State and Concurrent lists

D. 10thSchedule 4. Validation of certain

Acts/Regulations

Code:

A B C D

(a) 3 1 2 4

(b) 3 1 4 2

(d) 4 2 1 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Schedule	Features
7th Schedule	Divides powers between the Union and States through three lists — Union, State, and Concurrent Lists.
8th Schedule	Contains the list of 22 recognized languages of India.
9th Schedule	Added by the First Amendment (1951) to protect certain laws from judicial review (mainly land reforms).
10th Schedule	Added by the 52nd Amendment (1985); deals with anti-defection provisions for Members of Parliament and State Legislatures.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

114. Which of the following sites were obtained by the British East India Company under the Treaty ofSugauliin 1816?

Kathmandu

2. Shimla

3. Ranikhet

4. Nainital

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3 and 4

(d) Only 1

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

The Treaty of Sugauli (1816) was signed between the British East India Company and the Kingdom of Nepal after the Anglo-Nepalese War (1814–1816).

Under this treaty, Nepal ceded a large part of its territory to the British, including Kumaon, Garhwal, and parts of the Terai region. As a result, the regions that later developed into Shimla, Ranikhet, and Nainital became part of British India.

Kathmandu, however, remained under Nepalese control as the capital of the Kingdom of Nepal.

The sites acquired under the Treaty of Sugauli were Shimla, Ranikhet, and Nainital.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

115. “Swavalambini”, a women entrepreneurshipprogrammefor the North-East is launched by which of the following ministries?

1. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

2. Ministry of Women and Child Development

3. Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) Only 1

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Swavalambini is a women entrepreneurship program that aims to empower females in Northeast Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) with an entrepreneurial mindset, resources, and mentorship for business success.

The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) in collaboration with Indian Institute of Entrepreneurship (IIE), Guwahati and NITIAayog, launched it.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

116. Which of the following rivers fall into the Arabian Sea?

1. Periyar

2. Pennar

3. Palar

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 3

(d) 1 and 2

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Rivers	Features
Periyar River	Originates from the Western Ghats in Kerala. Flows westward through the Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary and finally empties into the Arabian Sea near Kochi (Kerala).
Pennar River	Originates in the Nandi Hills of Karnataka, flows through Andhra Pradesh, and drains into the Bay of Bengal.
Palar River	Originates in Nandi Hills (Karnataka), flows through Tamil Nadu, and empties into the Bay of Bengal near Vellore and Cuddalore.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

117. Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations in decreasing order of their frequencies.

Gamma rays

2. Ultraviolet rays

3. Radio waves

4. X-rays

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1, 4, 3, 2

(b) 4, 1, 2, 3

(d) 4, 1, 3, 2

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Gamma rays (1020Hz) > X-rays (1018Hz) > Ultraviolet rays (1016Hz) > Radio waves (104Hz).

Rays	Features
Gamma Rays	Have the highest frequency (1020Hz) and shortest wavelength in the electromagnetic spectrum. Produced during nuclear reactions and radioactive decay. Uses: Cancer treatment, sterilization, and space research.
X-Rays	Frequency (1018Hz) is slightly lower than gamma rays. Uses: Medical imaging, crystallography, and airport security scanners.
Ultraviolet Rays	Frequency (1016Hz) lower than X-rays but higher than visible light. Uses: Sterilization, water purification, detection of forged currency.
Radio Waves	Have the lowest frequency (104Hz) and longest wavelength. Uses: Communication — radio, television, radar, and mobile signals.

Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.

118. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Food security is necessary even in surplus food production years.

Reason (R): Starvation can still occur due to unequal distribution and lack of accessibility.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true; but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Food security is not just about having enough food produced nationally but ensuring every individual has physical, social, and economic access to sufficient, safe, and nutritious food.Therefore, Assertion (a) is true.

Starvation, widespread or generalized atrophy (wasting away) of body tissues either because food is unavailable or because it cannot be taken in or properly absorbed. Despite overall surplus production, many people may suffer starvation due to poverty, poor distribution systems, and regional inequalities in availability.Therefore, Reason (R) is true.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.

119. With reference to ‘Vice-President of India’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Vice-President is the ex-officioChairmanof the Rajya Sabha.

2. Vice-President is a member of the Rajya Sabha.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both 1 and 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Article 64: The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States). The Vice-President does not hold any other office of profit while serving as Chairperson.

The Vice-President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament or of a House of the Legislature of any State, and if a member of either house is elected as Vice-President, he shall be deemed to have vacated his seat in that House on the date on which he enters upon his office as Vice-President.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

120. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): India’s success is critical for the global success of Sustainable Development Goals.

Reason (R): India accounts for nearly one-sixth of the total world population.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

The UN’s 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development heavily depends on India’s progress because the country’s population, economic scale, and developmental diversity mean that achieving poverty eradication, climate action, and inclusive growth targets in India significantly influences global outcomes. Therefore, Assertion (A) is true.

According to 2025 estimates, India’s population is approximately 1.46 billion, which equals 17.7% to 18.3% of the world’s total — roughly one-sixth of humanity.

With such a large demographic share, India’s developmental successes or failures have a global impact on meeting SDG indicators concerning health, education, environment, and equity.Therefore, Reason (R) is true.

Thus, both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

121. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List - I (Ruler) List - II (Dynasty)

A. Mahendraverman 1. Rashtrakuta First

B. Kadungon 2. Pallava

C. Amoghavarsha First 3. Chola

D. Rajaraja First 4. Pandya

Code:

A B C D

(a) 4 2 3 1

(b) 2 4 1 3

(d) 4 2 1 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Ruler	Dynasty
Mahendraverman First	He was a prominent ruler of the Pallava dynasty (7th century), known for his battles against the Chalukyas.
Kadungon	He was the founder of the Pandya dynasty, known for his significant rule in Tamil history.
Amoghavarsha	A notable ruler of the Rashtrakuta dynasty, he is known for his long and prosperous reign.
Rajaraja First	He was the most famous ruler of the Chola dynasty, known for his military conquests and the construction of the Brihadeeswarar Temple.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

122. TheAppikoMovement is associated with which of the following Indian States?

1. Uttarakhand

2. Uttar Pradesh

3. Kerala

4. Karnataka

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 4

(d) Only 1

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Appiko Movement: Appiko Movement is one of the forest-based environmental movements in India. The movement took place in Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka in the Western Ghats.

The movement created awareness among the villagers throughout the Western Ghats about the ecological danger posed by the commercial and industrial interests to their forest which was the main source of sustenance.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

123. Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana comes under which of the following?

1. Ministry of Corporate Affairs

2. Ministry of Rural Development

3. Ministry of Finance

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) Only 1

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) was launched on 8th April 2015. It is implemented by the Ministry of Finance.

It aims to provide easy collateral-free micro loans to non-corporate, non-farm small and micro entrepreneurs for income generating activities.

Loans under the PMMY are provided under four different categories ‘Shishu’, ‘Kishore’, ‘Tarun’ and ‘TarunPlus’each catering to different stages of business development.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

124. Consider the following Election Reforms in India and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from earliest to the last.

1. Votersphoto identity card

2. Electronic voting machine

3. Voter verifiable paper audit trail

4. NOTA

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 2, 1, 3, 4

(b) 1, 2, 4, 3

(d) 2, 1, 4, 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Electronic voting machine (EVM) (1982)	EVMs were first used in 70-Parur Assembly Constituency of Kerala in the year 1982.
Voters photo identity card (1993)	Introduced to ensure the identification of voters and curb impersonation.
Voter verifiable paper audit trail (VVPAT) (2013)	Introduction of the VVPAT was facilitated by amending the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961 vide Notification dated 14th August 2013. They were first used in the by-election for 51-Noksen AC in Nagaland (4th Sept 2013).
NOTA (None of the Above) (November 2013)	The NOTA (None of the Above) option was first introduced in India on 27 September 2013, following a landmark Supreme Court judgment in People’s Union for Civil Liberties (PUCL) vs. Union of India. The NOTA option was first implemented in the Nov-Dec 2013 legislative assembly elections held in four States- Chhattisgarh, Mizoram, Rajasthan, and Madhya Pradesh and the union territory of Delhi.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Note: UPPSC considers option (d) as the correct answer to this question.

125. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Evaporation of sweat from human skin dissipates body heat.

Reason (R): High humidity on a hot day increases discomfort.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Sweating is a primary mechanism of thermoregulation in humans. When sweat evaporates from the skin surface, it absorbs heat energy from the body due to the latent heat of vaporization, thereby cooling the skin and lowering body temperature. Therefore Assertion (A) is true.

In humid conditions, the air already contains a large amount of water vapor, which reduces the rate of evaporation of sweat. As a result, the cooling effect of sweat evaporation is minimized, making the body feel hotter and more uncomfortable.Therefore, Reason (R) is true.

Thus, both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

126. ‘BHARATPOL’, an online portal for International Police Co-operation has been developed by which of the following?

1. Central Bureau of Investigation

2. Research and Analysis Wing

3. Intelligence Bureau

4. Enforcement Directorate

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

The BHARATPOL portal was launched on 7th January 2025 by Shri Amit Shah, the Union Home Minister of India. This portal aims to assist Indian law enforcement agencies in seeking cooperation from foreign law enforcement agencies on criminal matters.

It is developed by the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

127. Consider the following events and arrange them in correct chronological order.

1. Acquisition of Awadh by the British

2. Ilbert Bill Controversy

3. Indigo Revolt

4. Second Anglo-Afghan War

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1, 3, 4, 2

(b) 3, 1, 2, 4

(d) 1, 3, 2, 4

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Event	Features
Acquisition of Awadh (1856)	The British East India Company annexed Awadh (Oudh) in 1856, which contributed to the discontent leading up to the Indian Rebellion of 1857.
Indigo Revolt (1859-60)	The Indigo Revolt occurred in Bengal in 1859-60 as a response to the exploitation of farmers by European indigo planters.
Second Anglo-Afghan War (1878-1880)	The Second Anglo-Afghan War took place between 1878-1880, as the British sought to maintain control over Afghanistan to secure their interests in the region against Russian influence.
Ilbert Bill Controversy (1883)	The Ilbert Bill was introduced in 1883 by Sir Courtenay Ilbert, the Law Member of the Viceroy’s Council, aiming to grant Indian judges the authority to try British offenders, leading to widespread opposition from the British community in India.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

128. As per the One District One Product (ODOP) scheme of Uttar Pradesh,Moonjproducts are associated with which of the following districts?

1. Amethi

2. Sultanpur

3. Sant Kabir Nagar

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 3

(b) Only 3

(d) 1 and 2

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

The scheme adopts the One District One Product (ODOP) approach to leverage economies of scale in input procurement, access to common services, and product marketing. Under the scheme, ODOP will serve as the framework for value chain development and alignment of support infrastructure.

There may be more than one cluster of ODOP products in one district. There may be a cluster of ODOP products consisting of more than one adjacent district in a State.

One District One Product (ODOР) scheme, Moonj products are associated with Amethi, Prayagraj and Sultanpur.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

129. Which of the followingProgrammes/Schemes is/are NOT included in meeting theobjectives of National Education Policy 2020?

1. ULLAS

2. DIKSHA

3. Bharat Nirman Programme

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) Only 1

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

ULLAS (Understanding, Learning, and Linking for All Schools): Aims to enhance the quality of education at the school level and is aligned with the goals of the National Education Policy 2020 (NEP 2020).

DIKSHA (Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing): A national platform for digital resources, which is directly aligned with NEP 2020’s emphasis on digital learning and teacher empowerment.

Bharat Nirman Programme: This is primarily focused on rural infrastructure development, such as building roads, bridges, and providing rural housing. It is not directly related to the objectives of NEP 2020, which focuses on quality education, inclusive learning, and skill development.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

130. Iron dome missiledefencesystem belongs to which of the following countries?

1. France

2. United States of America

3. Israel

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) Only 1

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Iron Dome, short-range mobile air defense system developed for Israel by Rafael Advanced Defense Systems and Israel Aerospace Industries, with additional support from Raytheon. First deployed in 2011, Iron Dome constitutes the innermost layer of the tiered Israeli air defense network.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

131. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (a) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Voices of men and women are different.

Reason (R): Length and thickness of vocal cord is different in men and women.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (a) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (a) is false, but (R) is true

(d) Both (a) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

The voices of men and women are different. Men’s voices are generally lower in pitch due to physical differences in their vocal cords, while women’s voices tend to be higher in pitch.

The length and thickness of the vocal cords in men and women differ. Men typically have longer and thicker vocal cords, which results in a deeper voice, while women have shorter and thinner vocal cords, which gives them a higher-pitched voice.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

132. With reference to ‘Human Development Index’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The UNDP published its first Human Development Report in 1990, which had a Human Development Index.

2. The first team that developed the Human Development Index was led by Mahbub-ul-Haq and S. Priesner.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

The Human Development Index (HDI) is a summary measure of human development, focusing on three key dimensions: a long and healthy life, knowledge, and a decent standard of living. It is calculated as the geometric mean of normalized indices for these dimensions.

The Human Development Reports (HDRs) have been published since 1990, with the first report introducing the HDI, developed by Pakistani economist Mahbub-ul-Haq with contributions from economist Amartya Sen.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

133. Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched?

1. National Voters Day (India) - 25 January

2. Constitution Day (India) - 27 January

3. Human Rights Day (World) - 29 January

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) Only 1

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

National Voters’ Day (NVD), celebrated annually on 25th January, celebrated annually on 25th January since 2011 to commemorate the establishment of the ECI on 25th January 1950, a day before India became a Republic.

Constitution Day, also known as ‘Samvidhan Divas’, is celebrated in our country on 26th November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India.

Human Rights Day is observed every year on 10th December - the day the United Nations General Assembly adopted, in 1948, the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR).

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

134. Consider the following and arrange them in correct chronological order.

1. Food for work programme

2. Community Development Programme

3. Training for Rural Youth forSelf Employment(TRYSEM)

4. Drought Prone Area Programme

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 4, 2, 3, 1

(b) 2, 4, 1, 3

(d) 4, 2, 1, 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Community Development Programme (1952)	Launched as a part of the First Five-Year Plan to promote rural development and improve the living standards of rural populations.
Drought Prone Area Programme (1973)	Introduced to focus on drought-affected regions, aiming for development and providing relief in these areas.
Training for Rural Youth for Self Employment (TRYSEM) (1979)	Launched to provide skill development and training to rural youth, enabling them to pursue self-employment.
Food for Work Programme (1977–1978)	The food for work project was implemented in order to address the issues of hunger, unemployment, and poverty. After this scheme, the National Food for Work scheme was renamed in 2001.

135. Who among the following resigned from the Viceroy’s Executive Council, saddened by the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre?

1. ChetturSankaran Nair

2. Ishwari Prasad

3. Muhammad Shafi

4. Iqbal Narain Gurtu

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 2 and 3

(b) Only 4

(d) Only 1

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Chettur Sankaran Nair, a member of the Viceroy’s Executive Council, resigned in protest against the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (1919), as he was deeply disturbed by the incident. He was the only member of the council to resign over the massacre.

The other names listed (Ishwari Prasad, Muhammad Shafi, and Iqbal Narain Gurtu) did not resign over the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

136. With reference to the New Pamban Bridge, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It was constructed by Rail Vikas Nigam Limited, which is a ‘Navratna’ public sector unit under the Ministry of Railways.

2. It is India’s first vertical lift railway sea bridge.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

India’s first vertical lift railway sea bridge, the new Pamban Bridge, enhancing connectivity between Rameswaram and mainland India is designed by Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL), a Navaratna under the Ministry of Railways, and is built to last over 100 years.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

137. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Consumers can bargain below Maximum Retail Price (MRP).

Reason (R): MRP is a price a seller must charge from the buyer.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (a) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

The Maximum Retail Price (MRP) is the highest amount that a seller can legally charge for a product, inclusive of all taxes. However, sellers are allowed to sell at any price lower than the MRP based on discounts, offers, or negotiations. Consumers can therefore bargain for a price below MRP, and many retailers offer reductions accordingly.Therefore, Assertion (A) is true.

The MRP is not a mandatory price that a seller must charge; it is the maximum permissible limit beyond which the seller cannot go. Sellers are free to offer lower prices or discounts but not to exceed the MRP, as doing so violates the Legal Metrology Act, 2009 and related consumer protection rules..Therefore, Reason (R) is false.

Thus, Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

138. Suez canalconnects which of the following?

1. Atlantic Ocean

2. Red Sea

3. Mediterranean Sea

4. Indian Ocean

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 2

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway running north–south across Egypt’s Isthmus of Suez. It is a vital international shipping route, connecting the Mediterranean Sea to Red Sea.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer

139. With reference to Lifestyle for the Environment (LiFE), which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It was launched in June 2022.

2. Its idea was proposed at the COP 25 in Madrid, Spain.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi launched a global initiative ‘Lifestyle for the Environment (LiFE) Movement’ on 5th June 2022 via video conferencing.

The idea of LiFE was introduced by the Prime Minister during the 26th United Nations Climate Change Conference of the Parties (COP26) in Glasgow (2021).

The idea promotes an environmentally conscious lifestyle that focuses on ‘mindful and deliberate utilisation’ instead of ‘mindless and wasteful consumption.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer

140. With reference to World Bank and International Monetary Fund, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The World Bank and International Monetary Fund were set up together and are popularly known as Bretton Wood Twins.

2. Headquarters of International Monetary Fund and World Bank arelocatedat Washington D.C. and New York respectively.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

The World Bank and the International Monetary Fund (IMF) were set up together at the Bretton Woods Conference in 1944 and are commonly referred to as the Bretton Woods Twins. They were created to help rebuild the global economy post-World War II and foster international economic cooperation.

Both the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund are headquartered in Washington D.C.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer

141. With reference to the ‘Joint Sitting of Parliament’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Article 109 of the Constitution of India provides for the Joint Sitting of Parliament.

2. A Joint Sitting of Parliament may be called to pass a Constitution Amendment Bill.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both 1 and 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

A joint sitting involves both houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) meeting together. Article 108 of the Constitution provides for joint sitting of the Parliament.

A Joint Sitting of Parliament cannot be called to pass a Constitution Amendment Bill or a Money Bill. The provision of joint sitting is applicable to ordinary bills or financial bills only and not to money bills or Constitutional amendment bills.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer

142. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists.

List - I List - II

(Sustainable (Area of Goal) (Development Goals)

A. Goal 1 1.Clean water and sanitation

B. Goal 3 2. Quality education

C. Goal 4 3.To end poverty in all forms

D. Goal 6 4.Good health and well-being

Code:

A B C D

(a) 4 3 1 2

(b) 3 4 2 1

(d) 4 3 2 1

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), also known as the Global Goals, were adopted by the United Nations in 2015.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer

143. With reference to ‘Operation Olivia’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an initiative of Indian coast Guards to protect Olive Ridley turtles along the coast of Odisha.

2. Operation Olivia is carried out duringthe month of Augustwhich is the nesting time of Olive Ridley turtles.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

It was launched in the early 1980s as Indian Coast Guard (ICG)’s annual operation, to protect Olive Ridley turtles during their breeding.

It helps protect Olive Ridley turtles as they congregate along the Odisha coast for breeding and nesting from November to December.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

144. Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched?

(Biosphere Reserve) (State)

Nokrek - Manipur
Manas - Assam
Agasthyamalai - Kerala

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) Only 1

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is located in Meghalaya.

Manas Biosphere Reserve is located in Assam.

Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve is located in Kerala (and extends into Tamil Nadu).

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

145. With reference to Global Environment Facility, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It wasestablishedin 1991.

2. Only the developed countries are donors to it.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

The Global Environment Facility (GEF) was established in October 1991 and restructured after the 1992 Rio Earth Summit to fund projects in developing countries that protect the global environment and promote environmentally sustainable development.

The GEF is working with 183 countries to address the world’s most challenging environmental issues. Both developed and developing countries are or have been donors to the GEF Trust Fund.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

146. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Directive Principles are important for economic, social and political functions in a Modern Democratic State.

Reason (R): The core objectives of Directive Principles is to establish economic and social democracy.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) are important for the economic, social, and political functions of a modern democratic state. They guide the government in formulating policies for the welfare of the people and promoting social justice.Therefore, Assertion (A) is true.

The core objective of the Directive Principles is to establish economic and social democracy. These principles aim to create conditions for a just society by promoting social and economic equality, improving the standard of living, and providing adequate means of livelihood to all citizens.Therefore, Reason (R) is true.

Thus, both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

147. Who among the following introduced the concept of entitlements in food security?

M. S. Swaminathan

1. Atul Pranay

2. Samali Srikant

3. Amartya Sen

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 4

(d) Only 1

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

The concept of entitlements in food security was introduced by Amartya Sen, a renowned economist and Nobel laureate.

According to Sen, food security is not only about the availability of food but also about people’s entitlement to access it.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

148. With reference to Jnanpith Award, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The 58thJnanpith Award was conferred upon Sanskrit Scholar JagadguruRambhadracharya Ji.

2. The 1stJnanpith Award was given in 1965.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

The President conferred the 58th Jnanpith Award for the year 2023 upon Sanskrit scholar Jagadguru Rambhadracharya and renowned poet-lyricist Gulzar.

The Jnanpith Award, established in 1961 and first presented in 1965.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

149. Arrange the following in chronological order of their rule and select the correct answer from the code given below.

1. Bajirao I

2. Balaji Bajirao

3. Balaji Vishwanath

4. Madhav Rao I

Code:

(a) 1, 3, 2, 4

(b) 3, 1, 4, 2

(d) 1, 3, 4, 2

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Balaji Vishwanath (Peshwa 1713-1720): The first hereditary Peshwa from the Bhat family.

Bajirao I (Peshwa 1720-1740): A brilliant military strategist who significantly expanded the Maratha Empire.

Balaji Bajirao (Nana Saheb) (Peshwa 1740-1761): Continued Maratha expansion, particularly in North India.

Madhav Rao I (Peshwa 1761-1772): Revived the Maratha Empire after the devastating loss at Panipat.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

150. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

(Railway Zone) (Headquarter)

1. Northern Railway - New Delhi

2. North EasternRailway - Gorakhpur

3. South EasternRailway - Cuttack

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 3

(d) Only 1

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Railway Zone	Headquarter
Northern Railway	New Delhi
North Eastern Railway	Gorakhpur
South Eastern Railway	Kolkata

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

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