Current Affairs Quiz (March 2024) Part-I (Date : 20-03-2024)

Correct Answer : D

Explanation

• The National Statistics Office (NSO) conducts Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) to produce annual statistics of employment and unemployment characteristics for both rural and urban areas, along with quarterly estimates for urban areas. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The first annual report based on the data collected in PLFS during July 2017- June 2018 was published in May 2019.
• Objective of PLFS is to estimate the key employment and unemployment indicators (viz. Worker Population Ratio, Labour Force Participation Rate, Unemployment Rate) in the short time interval of three months for the urban areas only in the ‘Current Weekly Status’ (CWS). Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

• A Regulatory Sandbox (RS) refers to live testing of new products or services in a controlled regulatory environment for which regulators may or may not permit certain regulatory relaxations for the limited purpose of testing. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The RS is an important tool that enables more dynamic, evidence-based regulatory environments which learn from and evolve with emerging technologies.
• Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) revised the timeline for the completion of various stages of a Regulatory Sandbox (RS) to nine months from the previous seven months.
  • To enable regulated and orderly growth of FinTech ecosystem in India, the Reserve Bank in August 2019 became one of the few countries that have their very own Regulatory Sandbox (RS) ecosystem. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) set up an inter-regulatory Working Group in 2016 to look into and report on the granular aspects of FinTech and its implications so as to review the regulatory framework and respond to the dynamics of the rapidly evolving FinTech scenario.
• The report recommended introducing an appropriate framework for a Regulatory Sandbox (RS) within a well-defined space and duration where the financial sector regulator will provide the requisite regulatory guidance, to increase efficiency, manage risks and create new opportunities for consumers.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

• FASTag is a device that employs Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology for making toll payments directly while the vehicle is in motion. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• FASTag (RFID Tag) is affixed on the windscreen of the vehicle and enables a customer to make toll payments directly from the account which is linked to FASTag.
• It is operated by the National Highway Authority of India (NHAI) under the supervision
• of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

• The renowned Cuttack Rupa Tarakasi (Silver Filigree) has been granted the Geographical Indication (GI) tag, marking its distinct heritage and craftsmanship.
• Dating back to ancient Mesopotamia, where filigree adorned jewellery as early as 3500 BCE, its journey to Cuttack potentially via Persia and Indonesia speaks volumes about cultural exchange through maritime trade routes. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Filigree is ornamental work especially of fine wire of gold, silver, or copper applied chiefly to gold and silver surfaces.
• A GI tag is a label used on products linked to a specific geographic area, ensuring only authorized users from that region can use the product's name.
  • It guards against imitation and lasts for 10 years once registered. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) manages GI registration in India under the Geographical Indications of Goods Act, 1999, in line with the TRIPS agreement.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

• The Supreme Court of India legalized passive euthanasia, in Common Cause V/s Union of India Case, 2018, citing the importance of a 'living will.'
  • Further, the court emphasized that dignity in the dying process is integral to the right to life guaranteed by Article 21 of the Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Active euthanasia involves deliberately using lethal substances or actions to end a person's life. Whereas, Passive euthanasia occurs when life-sustaining treatments are withheld or withdrawn, allowing the patient to die naturally. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

• Abortion is the deliberate termination of a pregnancy, typically performed during the first 28 weeks of gestation. It can be achieved through various medical procedures or medications, depending on the stage of pregnancy and the preferences of the individual seeking abortion. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Until the 1960s, abortion was prohibited in India, and violating this led to imprisonment or fines under Section 312 of the Indian Penal Code. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  • The Shantilal Shah Committee was set up in the mid-1960s to investigate the need for abortion regulations.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

• Fresh dung contains 80-85% water; one kg weighs hardly 200 grams on drying.
• Fresh dung contains methane along with water, making it essential for biogas production in anaerobic digestion (breaks down biodegradable material without oxygen and produces biogas). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Methane, a key component of biogas, is produced in the rumen of bovines (the first of four stomach compartments in bovines) during the fermentation of plant material they consume. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Bacteria-like microbes in the rumen, known as archaea, utilise carbon dioxide and hydrogen produced during carbohydrate fermentation to generate methane.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

• About Corbett Tiger Reserve:
  • It is located in the Nainital district of Uttarakhand. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • The Project Tiger was launched in 1973 in Corbett National Park (first National Park of India), which is part of Corbett Tiger Reserve. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • The national park was established in 1936 as Hailey National Park to protect the endangered Bengal tiger.
  • The core area forms the Corbett National Park while the buffer contains reserve forests as well as the Sonanadi Wildlife Sanctuary.
  • The entire area of the reserve is mountainous and falls in the Shivalik and Outer Himalaya geological provinces.
  • Ramganga, Sonanadi, Mandal, Palain and Kosi are the major rivers flowing through the Reserve. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

Citizenship in India:

• Citizenship in India is listed in the Union List under the Constitution and thus is under the exclusive jurisdiction of Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Constitution of India, on 26^th January, 1950, established categories of people eligible for Indian citizenship.
• It also granted Parliament the authority to regulate additional aspects of citizenship, such as granting and renunciation.
  • Under this authority, Parliament enacted the Citizenship Act, 1955.
• The Act specifies that citizenship may be acquired in India through five methods: by birth in India, by descent, through registration, by naturalization (extended residence in India), and by incorporation of territory into India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

Cooperative banks in India:

• Cooperative banks are financial institutions that are owned and operated by their members, who are also the bank's customers.
• Cooperative banks in India, are registered under the Cooperative Societies Act of the State concerned or the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Reserve Bank regulates the banking functions of Urban Cooperative Banks under the provisions of Sections 22 and 23 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

• Pharmaceuticals Technology Upgradation Assistance (PTUAS) Scheme helps drug companies upgrade their facilities to produce medicines that meet global standards. It was launched in July 2022. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Up to a maximum of 5% per annum (6% for units owned and managed by Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes) of interest subvention for the loan component eligible under the scheme, capped at Rs. 10 crore. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• This subsidy is applicable for a maximum period of 3 years on the reduced balance for loans sanctioned by scheduled commercial banks /financial institutions, both in the public and private sectors.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

• The Gurmukhi script was developed from the Śāradā script, standardised and used by the second Sikh guru, Guru Angad. The Śāradā script is part of the Brahmic family of scripts. Hence, Statement-I is not correct.
• In a move to empower the Sikh community, on the occasion of Sikh New Year, the Union Minister of Minority Affairs launched a comprehensive skill development, leadership, and entrepreneurship promotion program.
• The program is part of the "Sabka Sath, Sabka Vikas, Sabka Vishwas, Sabka Prayas" initiative under the Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan (PM VIKAS) Scheme through the Delhi Sikh Gurdwara Management Committee (DSGMC), which is a Statutory Body established for the welfare of the Sikh community.
  • It targets 10,000 youth and women for modern skills training in employment-oriented job roles, promotes Sikh artisans, fosters women's leadership and entrepreneurship, and provides education for school dropouts. Hence, statement II is correct.
• Hence, Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

Krishi Sakhi Convergence Programme (KSCP):

• An MoU between the Ministries of Agriculture & Farmer Welfare and Rural Development initiated the KSCP, to empower Krishi Sakhi to transform rural India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The programme includes a Krishi Sakhis Training Programme to certify 70,000 Krishi Sakhis as "Para-Extension Workers." Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Krishi Sakhis, who are practicing farmers and trained para-extension professionals, serve as friends to farmers, guiding Natural Farming and Soil Health Management. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

• Libya:
  • Libya is bordered by the Mediterranean Sea to the north, Egypt to the east, Sudan to the southeast, Chad to the south, Niger to the southwest, Algeria to the west, and Tunisia to the northwest.
• Hence, option D is correct.
  

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

Connectome:

• The Connectome Concept depicts a detailed neural network map, resembling a blueprint that shows how neurons exchange electrical and chemical signals. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The connectome simplifies scientists' understanding of the brain's complexity and vast data volume, aiding advancements in neuroscience and neurological health research by comprehending brain function and the impact of conditions like ADHD and Alzheimer's disease on neural processes. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

India has made a significant advancement in missile technology, joining the select group of nations possessing Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle (MIRV) capabilities.

• This milestone was achieved through the successful flight test named Mission Divyastra, conducted by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). It marked the first time the indigenously developed Agni-5 missile integrated MIRV technology.
• MIRV technology originated in the United States, with the deployment of a MIRVed Intercontinental Ballistic Missile (ICBM) in 1970. Hence, Statement-I is not correct.
• MIRV allows a single missile to carry multiple warheads (3-4), each capable of targeting different locations independently. Hence, statement-II is correct.
• MIRV technology enhances the missile’s effectiveness by increasing the number of potential targets it can engage.
  • MIRVs can be launched from both land-based platforms and sea-based platforms, such as submarines, expanding their operational flexibility and range.
• Hence, option D is correct because Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

India-Indonesia Relations:

• Commercial Relations:
  • Indonesia has emerged as the second largest trading partner of India in the ASEAN region. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • Bilateral trade has increased from USD 4.3 billion in 2005-06 to USD 38.84 billion in 2022-23.
• Political Relations:
  • Both countries were chief supporters of independence for Asian and African countries, leading to the Bandung Conference of 1955 and the formation of the Non-Aligned Movement in 1961.
  • Since India adopted the 'Look East Policy' in 1991, there has been rapid development in bilateral relations.
  • Both countries are members of G20, East Asia Summit and the United Nations. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Cultural Relations:
  • The Hindu, Buddhist and later Muslim faiths travelled to Indonesia from the shores of India.
  • The stories from the great epics of Ramayana and Mahabharata form a source of Indonesian folk art and dramas. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

• Election Commission of India:
  • The Election Commission of India (ECI) is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering Union and State election processes in India.
  • The body administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and State Legislative Assemblies in India, and the offices of the President and Vice President in the country.
    • It is not concerned with the elections to panchayats and municipalities in the states. For this, the Constitution of India provides for a separate State Election Commission.
• Limitations:
  • The Constitution has not prescribed the qualifications (legal, educational, administrative or judicial) of the members of the Election Commission. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • The Constitution has not specified the term of the members of the Election Commission. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

• The Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwDs) Act, 2016 implements the United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities, ratified by India in 2007. Hence, statement-I is correct.
• Recently, the Central Public Works Department (CPWD) has prioritized improving accessibility for persons with disabilities (PwDs) in public buildings. Hence, statement-II is correct.

Hence, option B is correct because both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

Public Accounts Committee:

• Its primary responsibility lies in auditing the reports provided by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), with the assistance of the CAG during investigations. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The PAC consists of a maximum of 22 members, with 15 elected by the Lok Sabha and up to 7 members from the Rajya Sabha. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • Members are chosen annually through proportional representation via a single transferable vote.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

• The "Blue Line" refers to the demarcation line that separates the city of Jerusalem into two parts: West Jerusalem, which is predominantly Jewish, and East Jerusalem, which is predominantly Palestinian. This demarcation was established following the 1949 armistice between Israel and Jordan and was meant to be a temporary border.
• The Blue Line is not a physical barrier but rather a conceptual line on maps used to indicate the division between Israeli and Jordanian-controlled areas.
• The border between Israel and Lebanon is known as the "Blue Line". Hence, Statement I is not correct.
• It was set by the United Nations in 2000 after Israel withdrew its military from southern Lebanon. Hence, statement II is correct.
• Hence, Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

• In May 2016, the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas introduced the 'Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana' (PMUY) to provide clean cooking fuel like LPG to rural and deprived households. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • This aimed to replace traditional cooking fuels like firewood and coal, which had negative impacts on the health of rural women and the environment.
• Under Ujjwala 2.0 (Phase-2 of PMUY), a special provision has been made for Migrant Families to avail of new connections using Self-Declaration instead of Proof of Address (PoA) and Ration Card (RC). Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

• National Science Day is observed on the day Indian Physicist Chandrasekhara Venkata Raman discovered the Raman Effect. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The Raman Effect is the phenomenon where light gets scattered when passed through a transparent material, leading to changes in wavelength and energy. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• In 1928, on 28^th February CV Raman discovered the Raman Effect.
• He also received the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1930 due to his significant contribution to the field of Physics.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

• Ecocide:
  • It is defined as "unlawful or wanton acts committed with knowledge that there is a substantial likelihood of severe and either widespread or long-term damage to the environment being caused by those acts." Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • The definition was provided by the Independent Expert Panel for the Legal Definition of Ecocide, formed by the Stop Ecocide Foundation.
  • Ecocide is considered a form of environmental crime and is often associated with significant negative impacts on biodiversity, ecosystems, and human well-being.
    • Recognising ecocide as a crime aims to hold individuals and corporations accountable for their actions and to prevent further environmental degradation.
  • Ecocide is a crime in 12 countries, with nations mulling laws around criminalising environmental damage that is wilfully caused and harms humans, animals and plant species.
    • The Federal Parliament of Belgium has made history by becoming the first country in the European Continent to recognise ‘ecocide’ as a national as well as an international crime. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
      • The law targets individuals in positions of decision-making power and corporations, aiming to prevent and punish severe environmental degradation such as extensive oil spills.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC):

• An NBFC is a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956, involved in various financial activities such as providing loans and advances, acquiring shares, stocks, bonds, debentures, and securities issued by the government or local authorities. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• NBFCs do not include institutions primarily engaged in:
  • Agricultural or industrial activities
  • Purchase or sale of goods (other than securities)
  • Providing services
  • Dealing in immovable property. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

Acing Development of Innovative Technologies with iDEX (ADITI) Scheme:

• About:
  • The ADITI scheme worth Rs 750 crore for the period 2023-24 to 2025-26 falls under the iDEX (Innovations for Defence Excellence) framework of Department of Defence Production (DDP), Ministry of Defence.
  • Under the scheme, start-ups are eligible to receive grant-in-aid of up to Rs 25 crore for their research, development, and innovation endeavours in defence technology. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The scheme will nurture the innovation of youth, and help the country leap forward in the field of technology.
    • In the first edition of ADITI, 17 challenges – Indian Army (3), Indian Navy (5), Indian Air Force (5) and Defence Space Agency (4) - have been launched. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Objective:
  • It aims to develop about 30 deep-tech critical and strategic technologies in the proposed timeframe.
  • It also envisages to create a ‘Technology Watch Tool’ to bridge the gap between the expectations and requirements of the modern Armed Forces and the capabilities of the defence innovation ecosystem.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

• Parliamentary privileges are special rights, immunities and exemptions enjoyed by the members of the Parliament and their committees.
  • These privileges are defined in Article 105 of the Indian Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Article 194 guarantees same privileges to the Members of Legislative Assemblies of states. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
• Under these privileges, the members of Parliament are exempted from any civil liability (but not criminal liability) for any statement made or act done in the course of their duties.
• Parliament has not made any special law to exhaustively codify all the privileges. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• They are based on five sources:
  • Constitutional provisions
  • Various laws made by Parliament
  • Rules of both the Houses
  • Parliamentary conventions
  • Judicial interpretations

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

• Cairns Group:
  • Established: 1986 in Cairns, Australia
  • Members: 19 agricultural exporting countries, including Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, Pakistan, and New Zealand.
    • India is not a Member of Cairns Group.
  • Stance: Advocates for liberalization of agricultural trade, meaning they generally support reducing tariffs, subsidies, and other trade barriers that hinder the free flow of agricultural products across borders. They believe this will benefit all countries by promoting efficiency and economic growth.
• Hence, Option C is correct.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

• Aihole Inscription of Pulikesin II:
  • It is situated in the Megudi temple at Aihole, Karnataka, the Aihole inscription provides invaluable insights into Chalukya history and achievements. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • It was crafted by the renowned poet Ravikriti, Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • The inscription is a lyrical tribute to the Chalukya dynasty, particularly King Pulakesin II, lauded as the embodiment of truth (Sathyasraya). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • The inscription chronicles the Chalukya dynasty's triumphs over adversaries, including the renowned defeat of Harshavardhana.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

The Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO) conducted two successful flight tests of the Very Short-Range Air Defence System (VSHORADS) missile.

• These tests were carried out from a ground-based portable launcher off the coast of Odisha at the Integrated Test Range, Chandipur, and targeted high-speed unmanned aerial targets in various interception scenarios.
• VSHORADS, a Man Portable Air Defence System (MANPAD), is an indigenous creation developed by the Research Centre Imarat (RCI) in collaboration with other DRDO laboratories and Indian industry partners. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Propelled by a dual-thrust solid motor, the missile is designed to neutralize low-altitude aerial threats at short ranges while ensuring easy portability due to highly optimized design. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

• The British government's Religious Endowments Act of 1863 aimed to secularize temple management by transferring control to local committees. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• In 1927, the Justice Party enacted the Madras Hindu Religious Endowments Act, marking one of the earliest efforts by an elected government to regulate temples. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • In 1950, the Law Commission of India recommended legislation to prevent misuse of temple funds, leading to the enactment of the The Tamil Nadu Hindu Religious and Charitable Endowments (TN HR&CE) Act, 1951.
    • It provides for the creation of a Department of Hindu Religious and Charitable Endowments for the administration, protection, and preservation of temples and their properties.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

Significant shifts have occurred in the textile supply chain in less than a year since the enforcement of a strict Quality Control Order (QCO) on viscose staple fibre (VSF) in India.

• VSF imports dropped by 65% after the enforcement of the QCO in April 2023.
  • VSF is a natural, biodegradable, semi-synthetic fibre that has similar characteristics to cotton. It's made from wood or cotton pulp and is versatile, easily blendable, and light and breathable. Hence, Statement I is correct.
• A QCO is a non-tariff trade barrier that bars manufacturers, importers, and distributors from storing or selling a product without a licence from the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) that certifies specific quality standards being met. Hence, statement II is correct.

Hence, option B is correct because Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

• The Grain Storage Plan aims to establish 700 lakh tonnes of storage capacity over the next 5 years, with an investment of ₹1.25 lakh crore. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • This involves creating agricultural infrastructure at the PACS level, including decentralised godowns, custom hiring centres, processing units, Fair Price Shops, etc., by integrating various existing schemes of the Government of India.
• Cooperatives are people-centred enterprises owned, controlled and run by and for their members to realise their common economic, social, and cultural needs and aspirations.
  • India has one of the world's largest cooperative networks, with over 800,000 cooperatives spread across various sectors like agriculture, credit, dairy, housing, and fisheries. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

• The Supreme Court of India's acknowledgement in the case of Satender Kumar Antil vs Central Bureau Of Investigation, 2022, highlighted the inefficacy of India's bail system and its role in exacerbating the crisis of undertrial incarceration.
  • This recognition underscores the pressing need for reforming bail laws to address systemic challenges within the criminal justice system.
• The Fair Trial Programme (FTP) is a criminal justice initiative based at the National Law University in Delhi. The FTP's goal is to ensure fair trials for undertrial prisoners. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The FTP trains and mentors young professionals, such as lawyers and social workers, to collaborate with the State Legal Services Authority. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

Second INDUS-X Summit:

• The United States Department of Defense (DoD) and the Indian Ministry of Defense (MoD) participated in the second India-US Defense Acceleration Ecosystem (INDUS-X) Summit in New Delhi.
• It was jointly organised by Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX), MoD, and the DoD, and coordinated by the US-India Business Council (USIBC) and Society of India Defense Manufacturers (SIDM).
• Key Highlights:
  • The summit emphasised the critical role India and the US play as key partners in ensuring a free and open Indo-Pacific region. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Discussions centred on co-producing advanced military capabilities, strengthening defence supply chains, and enhancing interoperability to address shared security challenges.
  • Emphasis was placed on fostering innovation in defence technologies through collaborative efforts between Indian and American industries.
    • The summit provided a platform for startups and Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in the defence sector to engage with established players, facilitating knowledge exchange and partnerships.Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • The Summit highlighted the introduction of Joint IMPACT Challenges, aiming to advance defence and aerospace co-development and co-production collaboratively, involving startups in pioneering solutions. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

Electricity (Rights of Consumers) Rules(A), 2020:

• Systems with a capacity of up to 10 kW are exempt from the requirement of a technical feasibility study. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The distribution company is required to strengthen the distribution system needed for rooftop solar PV systems up to 5 kW capacity at its own expense. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Consumers can obtain separate electricity connections for charging their Electric Vehicles (EVs). Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

A dedicated team of amateur radio operators (HAMs) advocating last-mile connectivity, aimed to integrate HAM education in schools for enhanced disaster response, embarked on a significant journey from cyclone shelters in Nachugunta Island, Andhra Pradesh, to participate in the Island on the Air (IOTA) expedition.

• The expedition's success showcases HAM operators' technical prowess, emphasises community engagement and preparedness for natural disasters, and demonstrates India's amateur radio capabilities while enhancing emergency communication resilience in vulnerable regions.
• Amateur Radio (HAM Radio) is a widely enjoyed hobby that uses radio frequencies for non-commercial purposes, fostering technical learning, community engagement, and global connectivity through radio waves. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Islands On The Air (IOTA), is a program connecting global radio amateurs with island stations, managed by IOTA Ltd and Radio Society of Great Britain (RSGB), categorising islands into communication groups since 1964. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

• The Binary System of Stars refers to the pair of stars that are gravitationally bound to each other and orbit around a common centre of mass. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• An estimated 85% or more of stars are actually part of binary or even multiple-star systems. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• Classification:
  • Visual Binaries: These are the easiest to identify and consist of two stars that can be directly resolved and separated using a telescope.
  • Spectroscopic binaries: These stars are too close together to be resolved visually even with powerful telescopes.
    • However, their presence can be detected by observing periodic shifts in their spectral lines.
  • Eclipsing Binaries: These binary systems are aligned in a way that one star periodically passes in front of the other from our perspective.
    • This event creates a temporary dip in the brightness of the combined system, allowing astronomers to confirm the presence of the unseen companion and study its properties.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

• Sant Guru Ravidas, born in 1377 CE in Seer Govardhanpur, Uttar Pradesh, is revered as a saint, philosopher, poet, and social reformer.
  • Known by various names like Raidas, Rohidas, and Ruhidas, he hailed from a community traditionally associated with leatherwork. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Guru Ravidas made significant contributions to the Bhakti Movement, emphasising devotion to the divine and promoting spiritual equality. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Guru Ravidas's teachings emphasised human rights, equality, and spiritual enlightenment.
• Some of his compositions are included in the revered scripture, Guru Granth Sahib Ji, adding to his literary and philosophical significance. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

• The Prime Minister of India inaugurated the Sudarshan Setu (also known as the Okha-Beyt Dwarka Signature Bridge), India's longest cable-stayed bridge connecting the Okha mainland and the Beyt Dwarka island in Gujarat. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Bet Dwarka, is the second largest island off the Gujarat coast, after the Union Territory of Diu. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The bridge, constructed as a part of National Highway (NH) 51 that runs along the sea coast of Saurashtra, was built by the NH division of Gujarat Roads and Buildings Department.
  • Atal Setu is the longest bridge in India and also the longest sea bridge in the country. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

• Planets are formed when the dust and gas swirling around a young star collide and clump together. A similar process could be in play near supermassive black holes, where planets take shape inside the disc and eventually become blanets. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Scientists in Japan theorized in 2019 that planets could form near supermassive black holes from massive dust and gas clouds observed in their vicinity. These planets, termed "blanets," are not anticipated to resemble Earth. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

• Government Securities (G-Secs) are tradable instrument issued by the Central Government or the State Governments. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• A G-Sec is a type of debt instrument issued by the government to borrow money from the public to finance its Fiscal Deficit. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • It acknowledges the Government’s debt obligation.
    • Such securities are short-term (usually called treasury bills, with original maturities of less than one year- presently issued in three tenors, namely, 91-day, 182 days and 364 days) or long-term (usually called Government bonds or dated securities with original maturity of one year or more).
• G-Secs carry practically no risk of default and, hence, are called risk-free gilt-edged instruments. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

• SWAYAM, the Massive Open Online Course (MOOC) platform providing educational opportunities for a vast number of learners, was launched by the Ministry of Education in 2017. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• SWAYAM Plus now offers industry-relevant courses to boost employability, with features like multilingual content, AI guidance, credit recognition, and pathways to employment, developed in collaboration with companies like L&T, Microsoft, CISCO, and others. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Swayam-Plus has been aligned with National Education Policy, 2020. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

• According to Sharia or the Muslim personal law, men are allowed to practice polygamy that is, they can have more than one wife at the same time, up to a total of four. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 had codified laws related to marriage among Hindus.
  • The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 which lays out guidelines for property inheritance among Hindus, Buddhists, Jains and Sikhs. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

• The traditional crochet lace craft of Narasapur in Andhra Pradesh receives a Geographical Indications (GI) tag to preserve its unique identity amidst competition from machine-made lace from China. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Similarly, Majuli masks and manuscript painting in Assam gain GI recognition, enhancing their cultural significance and safeguarding against decline. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Patan Patola of Gujarat has also received the GI Tag in the past. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
• Hence, option D is correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

• Bharat Tex 2024, the largest global textile event in India, concluded at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, inspired by the 5F Vision of the Prime Minister of India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The '5F' Formula encompasses - Farm to fibre; fibre to factory; factory to fashion; fashion to foreign.
• Bharat Tex served as a launchpad for initiatives like the ‘Innovative Business Practices and Economic Models in the Textile Value Chain in India’ (IndiaTex) and Textile Grand Innovation Challenge, aiming to drive innovation and sustainability in the textile industry. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  • IndiaTex is a four-year UN Environment Programme project that aims to accelerate the transition of the Indian textile sector towards circularity.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

• Rare Diseases:
  • Rare diseases are loosely defined as occurring infrequently in the population, with prevalence varying between nations.
  • The World Health Organization defines rare diseases as often debilitating lifelong conditions with a prevalence of 1 or less per 1000 population.
  • India currently does not have a standard definition, but the Organisation of Rare Diseases India (ORDI) has suggested that a disease is to be defined as rare if it affects 1 in 5,000 people or less. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Global Rare Diseases Burden:
  • 300 million people worldwide are affected by rare diseases.
  • Rare diseases affect approximately 3.5% to 5.9% of the population. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • 72% of rare diseases are genetic, with over 7000 characterized by diverse disorders and symptoms.
• The Landscape of Rare Diseases in India :
  • India represents one-third of global rare disease cases, encompassing over 450 identified diseases. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Despite this significant prevalence, rare diseases remain largely overlooked in India, with limited awareness, diagnosis, and drug development.
  • Over 8 to 10 crore Indians are estimated to suffer from rare diseases, with over 75% being children.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

• Rajya Sabha Elections:
  • As per Article 80 of the Constitution, representatives of each State to the Rajya Sabha are elected indirectly by the elected members of their Legislative Assembly. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Amendment to the Representation of the People Act, 1951:
  • In order to rein in the MLAs from such cross-voting, an amendment to the Representation of the People Act, 1951 was carried out in 2003.
  • Section 59 of the Act was amended to provide that the voting in elections to Rajya Sabha shall be through an open ballot. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • The MLAs of political parties are required to show their ballot paper to the authorised agent of their Party.
• Shailesh Manubhai Parmar v Election Commission of India Case, 2018:
  • The Supreme Court denied the None Of The Above (NOTA) option to the electors in the Rajya Sabha election. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

Household Consumption Expenditure Survey 2022-23:

• Recently, the Ministry of Statistics and Program Implementation disclosed the general results of the All India Household Consumption Expenditure Survey conducted from August 2022 to July 2023.
• It is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO) every 5 years. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It is designed to gather data on household consumption of goods and services, which is also used to derive macroeconomic indicators such as GDP, poverty rates, and Consumer Price Index (CPI). Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

Obelisks:

• Obelisks are novel virus-like entities comprising diverse RNA molecules found in the human body and the global microbiome. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• They display rod-like structures similar to iconic monuments and have genetic sequences around 1,000 nucleotides long, showing no discernible similarities to known biological agents. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Further research is needed to understand the genome replication, transmission, pathogenicity, evolution, ecological significance, and impact on human health of obelisks.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

• India's leopard population rose by 8% from 12,852 in 2018 to 13,874 in 2022. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Madhya Pradesh has the highest number of leopards (3,907), followed by Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• About 65% of the leopard population is present outside protected areas in the Shivalik landscape. Only about a third of the leopards are within protected areas. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

• Single-use plastic has among the highest shares of plastic manufactured and used. Statement-I is correct.
• On the current trajectory of production, it has been projected that single-use plastic could account for 5-10% of greenhouse gas emissions by 2050. Statement-II is correct.
• Statement 1 refers to the peak single-use plastic production, while Statement 2 addresses the projected share of greenhouse gas emissions from single-use plastics by 2050 due to specific circumstances. Both statements are accurate but focus on different aspects of the single-use plastic issue.
• Hence, option B is correct because both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

• The most common type of Haemophilia is called Haemophilia A. This means the person does not have enough clotting factor VIII (factor eight). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Haemophilia B is less common. A person with Haemophilia B does not have enough factor IX (factor nine). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The main treatment for Haemophilia is Replacement Therapy. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

• Nordic-Baltic Cooperation:
  • The Nordic-Baltic cooperation is an informal regional cooperation format established in 1992, bringing together 5 Nordic (Finland, Sweden, Norway, Denmark, and Iceland) and 3 Baltic countries (Estonia, Latvia, and Lithuania).
  • Sweden holds the chairmanship of the NB8 in 2024.
• Hence, option C is correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

Obesity:

• Overweight and obesity are defined as abnormal or excessive fat accumulation that presents a health risk.
• Obesity is a major risk factor for chronic diseases like cardiovascular diseases, diabetes, musculoskeletal disorders, and certain cancers. Hence, statement-I is correct.
• Overweight is a condition of excessive fat deposits and Obesity is a chronic disease that occurs when the body stores excess calories as fat. Hence, statement-II is correct.
• Obesity is one side of the double burden of malnutrition, and today more people are obese than underweight in every region except the South-East Asia Region.

Hence, option B is correct because both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

Shri Morarji Desai:

• Morarji Desai was an Indian politician and activist who served as the fourth Prime Minister of India from 1977 to 1979.
  • The Forty-fourth Amendment of the Constitution of India was enacted during his tenure as Prime Minister. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Morarji Desai joined Congress during the Civil Disobedience Movement. Imprisoned thrice and actively participated in individual Satyagraha and Quit India Movement. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • He became Chief Minister of Bombay in 1952 and also served as Minister for Commerce and Industry, then Finance Minister. Resigned under the Kamraj Plan and led the Administrative Reforms Commission. Became Prime Minister in 1977.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

National Mission on Sustaining Himalayan Ecosystem (2010):

• The Programme was launched in 2010 but was formally approved by the government in 2014. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It is a multi-pronged, cross-cutting mission across various sectors.
• It contributes to the sustainable development of the country by enhancing the understanding of climate change, its likely impacts and adaptation actions required for the Himalayas- a region on which a significant proportion of India’s population depends for sustenance.
• States Covered:
  • ElevenStates: Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura, Meghalaya, Assam and West Bengal.
  • Two Union Territories: Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.
• Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

• Harit Nauka Initiative:
  • The Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways unveiled the Harit Nauka guidelines for inland vessels in January 2024.
• Guidelines:
  • As per the guidelines, all states have to make efforts to use green fuels for 50% of inland waterways-based passenger fleets in the next one decade, and 100% by 2045. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • This is to reduce greenhouse gas emissions as per the Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

• The GARBH-Ini-GA2 is a flagship programme of the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• GARBH-Ini GA-2 is based on genetic algorithms. A genetic algorithm is an optimisation technique inspired by evolution and natural selection principles. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology Madras and the Translational Health Science and Technology Institute, Faridabad, have collaborated to develop an India-specific artificial intelligence model named Garbhini-GA2, tailored for accurately determining the gestational age (GA) of foetus in the second and third trimesters of pregnancy. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

• The GROW portal is hosted on the Bhuvan platform, ensuring universal access to state and district-level data related to agroforestry suitability. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The portal utilises thematic datasets derived from remote sensing and Geographic Information System (GIS) technology, offering comprehensive information on factors influencing agroforestry suitability. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The GROW report aims to facilitate restoration projects for achieving national commitments of Land Degradation Neutrality and restoring 26 million hectares of degraded land by 2030, as well as creating an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide equivalent. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

• Nitrogen pollution refers to the excessive presence of nitrogen compounds in the environment, primarily in water bodies like rivers and lakes
• Sources of Nitrogen Pollution:
  • Agricultural Activities: One of the main drivers of nitrogen pollution has been the rising consumption of nitrogen-based fertilizer, which can leach into groundwater or runoff into surface water bodies.
  • Industrial Processes: Manufacturing processes, particularly those involved in the production of nitrogen-based chemicals and fertilisers, release nitrogen compounds into the environment.
    • Combustion of fossil fuels in industries also emits nitrogen oxides (NOx) into the atmosphere.
  • Livestock Farming: Livestock waste, primarily from manure and urine, contains nitrogen compounds such as ammonia.
    • Improper storage and management of livestock waste can lead to nitrogen runoff, contaminating water bodies and contributing to eutrophication.
    • The livestock sector currently emits 65 teragrams (Tg) of nitrogen per year, equivalent to one-third of current human-induced nitrogen emissions.
  • Biomass Burning: Wildfires and burning of cow dung cake as a fuel release nitrogen oxides (NOx) and nitrous oxide (N2O) into the atmosphere.
    • These emissions contribute to air pollution and can have regional and global impacts on atmospheric chemistry and climate.
• Hence, Option C is correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

India’s Spending on Research and Development (R&D) :

• India’s Declined R&D Expenditure:
  • India's expenditure on Research and Development (R&D) has declined to 0.64% in 2020-21 of GDP (Gross Domestic Product), down from 0.8% in 2008-2009 and 0.7% in 2017-2018. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    • This decrease is concerning, especially considering repeated calls from government agencies to double R&D spending.
  • The 2013 Science, Technology, and Innovation Policy aimed to increase Gross Expenditure on R&D (GERD) to 2% of GDP, a goal reiterated in the 2017-2018 Economic Survey. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • However, the reasons for the reduction in R&D spending are unclear. Potential factors may include insufficient coordination among government agencies and a lack of strong political will to prioritise R&D expenses.
• Developed Countries’ R&D Expenditure:
  • Comparatively, most developed countries allocate between 2% and 4% of their GDPs to R&D. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

Lokpal:

• The President appoints the chairperson and members of the Lokpal based on recommendations from a Selection Committee chaired by the Prime Minister. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The Lokpal can consist of a chairperson and eight members, with four being judicial and four non-judicial. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Recently, former Supreme Court Justice Ajay Manikrao Khanwilkar was appointed as the chairperson of Lokpal. This came nearly two years after the post was vacant.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

Financial Action Task Force (FATF):

• FATF is the global money laundering and terrorist financing watchdog set up in 1989 out of a G-7 meeting of developed nations in Paris. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Initially, its objective was to examine and develop measures to combat money laundering.
  • After the 9/11 attacks on the US, the FATF in 2001 expanded its mandate to incorporate efforts to combat terrorist financing.
• The recent removal of the United Arab Emirates (UAE) from the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) grey list has sparked optimism for investment landscapes, particularly in India's Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

• The Sudarshan Setu is also known as the Okha-Beyt Dwarka Signature Bridge. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It is India's longest cable-stayed bridge connecting the Okha mainland and the Beyt Dwarka island in Gujarat. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The bridge is technically a sea link, a first for Gujarat, with a total length of 4,772 meters, featuring a 900-meter-long cable-stayed section.
  • It also has solar panels installed on the upper portions of the footpath, generating one megawatt of electricity.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

Inter-State Water Dispute Act, 1956:

• Inter-State Water Dispute (ISWD) Act, 1956: In case, a particular state or states approach the Centre for the constitution of the tribunal, the Central Government should try to resolve the matter by consultation among the aggrieved states. In case, if it does not work, then it may constitute the tribunal. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Inter-State Water Dispute Act, 1956 was amended in 2002, to include the major recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission.
  • The amendments mandated a one-year time frame to set up the water disputes tribunal and also a 3-year time frame to give a decision. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV):

• Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) is a three-stage Launch Vehicle configured with three Solid Propulsion Stages and a liquid propulsion-based Velocity Trimming Module (VTM) as a terminal stage. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• SSLV is capable of launching 500kg satellites in 500km planar orbit from Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • A planar orbit, also known as a low Earth orbit (LEO), is an orbit around the Earth that lies close to the Earth's equatorial plane. In this type of orbit, the satellite's path forms a relatively flat plane around the Earth.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

• The Holistic Progress Card (HPC) is a new approach to evaluating students' academic performance that moves away from traditional reliance on marks or grades. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It adopts a comprehensive 360-degree evaluation system that takes into account various aspects of a student's development and learning experience. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Hence, option A is correct because both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

• Coal is the most important and abundant fossil fuel in India. It accounts for 55% of the country's energy needs.
• Lignite coal is characterized by its carbon content of 40% to 55% and high moisture levels, and is primarily found in areas including Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, Gujarat, Rajasthan and Jammu & Kashmir.
  • Tamil Nadu (not Odisha) was the largest producer of lignite and produced 22.480 Million Tonnes (MT) in 2022-23 (Ministry of Coal, Government of India)
• Current per capita consumption of coal in India stands at around 350 kilograms of oil equivalent per year, lower than developed countries.
• Present import policy allows for the unrestricted import of coal under Open General License.
  • Consumers, including the steel, power, and cement sectors, as well as coal traders, can import coal based on their commercial requirements.
• Hence, option B is correct.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

• Cavum clouds are formed when aircraft pass through mid-level altocumulus clouds containing supercooled liquid water droplets. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• As the planes disrupt the air around Altocumulus Clouds, the droplets freeze into ice crystals, which eventually become heavy and fall out of the sky, leaving voids in the cloud layer. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• This phenomenon was captured by NASA's Terra satellite showing cavum clouds over the Gulf of Mexico off Florida's west coast. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

• Spiking Neural Networks (SNNs) are a type of artificial neural network (ANNs) inspired by the human brain's neural structure. Unlike traditional ANNs, which use continuous numerical values for processing data, SNNs operate based on discrete spikes or pulses of activity.
• SNNs use patterns or timings of spikes to process and transmit information, similar to how neurons in the brain communicate through electrical impulses called spikes. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Lifelong Learning (L2) or Lifelong Machine Learning (LML) is a machine learning paradigm that involves continuous learning. It involves accumulating knowledge from previous tasks and using it to help with future learning and problem-solving. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE):

• BEE was established on 1st March 2002, under the provisions of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• BEE falls under the purview of the Ministry of Power. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The mission of BEE is to assist in developing policies and strategies for energy efficiency with the primary objective of reducing the energy intensity of the Indian economy. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• BEE has helped India reduce its energy consumption by around 3.5%.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

• The genome represents the entirety of an organism's hereditary information, serving as a biological instruction manual inherited from parents.
  • Composed of four nucleotide bases: adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), and thymine (T), the genome contains approximately 3 billion base pairs in humans. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • This complex sequence encodes essential information governing an individual's physical characteristics, susceptibility to diseases, and other biological traits.
• The first whole human genome was sequenced with the collaboration of an international team. It took 13 years and $3 billion, and was completed in 2003. India announced its first complete human genome in 2009. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

• A General Diary is a record of all the activities and incidents that take place in a police station on a daily basis.
• Section 44 of the Police Act, 1861 empowers the State Government to prescribe the form of the General Diary and the manner in which it shall be maintained. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The General Diary contains various details such as the:
  • Arrival and departure of police officers
  • Arrest of persons
  • Seizure of property
  • Receipt and disposal of complaints
  • Any other information that the officer in charge of the police station may consider necessary to record.
• In CBI v. Tapan Kumar Singh (2003), the Supreme Court ruled that a General Diary Entry may be treated as FIR in an appropriate case, where it discloses the commission of a cognisable offence. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD):

• IFAD is an international financial institution and specialized United Nations agency working in the field of poverty eradication in the rural areas of developing countries providing grants and loans with low interest for allied projects. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It was created in 1977, which is the outcome of the World Food Conference of 1974.
• It has 177 member countries. India is also a member country. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

• INS Vikrant: India's first indigenously-built aircraft carrier, a major milestone in achieving self-reliance in defense manufacturing. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• MILAN 2024 is the 12^th edition of the biennial Multilateral Naval Exercise held at Visakhapatnam, under the aegis of Eastern Naval Command.
  • The central aim of MILAN is to enhance professional interaction between friendly navies and gain experience in multilateral large-force operations at sea.
  • It made a beginning in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands in 1995. The navies of Indonesia, Singapore, Sri Lanka, and Thailand participated in this edition. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

Dak Karmayogi Project:

• This is an e-learning platform to enhance the competencies of Gramin Dak Sevaks and Postal Department employees. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Meghdoot Awards are a national-level award given by India Post to top-performing employees in the Department of Posts.
• The awards were introduced in 1984 to recognize outstanding performance and encourage postal employees.
• This portal has been developed 'In-House' under the vision of Mission Karmayogi. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

• About Claude:
  • Claude is a group of Large Language Models (LLMs) developed by Anthropic.
    • LLMs are a specific class of generative AI models that are trained to understand and generate human-like text. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The chatbot is capable of handling text, voice messages, and documents. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The chatbot is capable of generating faster, contextual responses compared to its peers.
• Claude 3:
  • Among the new releases, Claude 3 Opus is the most powerful model, Claude 3 Sonnet is the middle model that is capable and price competitive, and Claude 3 Haiku is relevant for any use case that requires instant responses.
    • Claude Sonnet powers the Claude.ai chatbot for free at present and users only need an email sign-in.
    • However, Opus is only available through Anthropic’s web chat interface and if a user is subscribed to the Claude Pro service on the Anthropic website.
• Limitations of Claude 3:
  • Claude 3 performs well in tasks such as answering factual questions and optical character recognition (OCR), meaning the ability to extract text from images.
    • Reportedly, the new model is good at following instructions and completing tasks like writing Shakespearean sonnets.
  • However, it struggles with complex reasoning and mathematical problems at times. It also exhibited biases in its responses, such as favouring a certain racial group over others. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

Milk Production in India:

• India is the highest milk producer i.e., ranks first position in the world. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• India contributes 24% of global milk production in the year 2021-22. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• In the last 10 years, milk production increased by almost 60%, and per capita milk availability has increased by about 40%.
• The top 5 milk-producing states are Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh.
• The Indian dairy sector is growing by 6% per year as compared to the global average of 2%. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

INS Jatayu:

• INS Jatayu will enhance the Indian Navy's operational reach in the Indian Ocean for anti-piracy, anti-narcotics, and surveillance missions. Hence, statement-I is correct.
• INS Jatayu is strategically located in Minicoy and will operate under the Southern Naval Command's Naval Officer in Charge (Lakshadweep). Hence, statement-II is correct.
• INS Jatayu will be equipped with additional infrastructure, including an airfield and personnel housing, to support naval operations and ensure comprehensive security coverage.
• Minicoy Island, where INS Jatayu is located, sits at the intersection of crucial Sea Lines of Communications (SLOCs) like the Eight Degree Channel and the Nine Degree Channel, making it susceptible to maritime pollution due to heavy maritime traffic.
• Hence, option A is correct because both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

Digital Intelligence Platform (DIP):

• The DIP is a secure and integrated platform created by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) for curbing the misuse of telecom resources and data through intelligence sharing and information exchange among the stakeholders covering a wide spectrum of telecom service providers, law enforcement agencies (LEAs), banks and financial institutions. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It would be a non-public data-sharing resource for “Telecom Service Providers (TSPs), LEAs, banks and financial institutions, social media platforms, identity document issuing authorities, etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

Unjust Climate Report:

• Recently, the Food and Agriculture Organisation of the United Nations (FAO), has released a report titled- The Unjust Climate, which shows how the effects of Climate Change on income and adaptation in rural areas vary with gender, wealth, and age.
• FAO analyzed socioeconomic data from over 100,000 rural households representing more than 950 million people across 24 LMICs (Lower Middle-Income Countries).
• Hence, option A is correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

• The Minister of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution launched the ‘e-Kisan Upaj Nidhi’ (Digital Gateway) of Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA) to leverage technology for easing farmers' warehousing logistics and ensuring fair prices for their produce. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• WDRA was established in October 2010, under the Warehousing (Development and Regulation) Act, 2007, with the aim of developing and regulating warehouses, promoting negotiability of warehouse receipts, and facilitating orderly growth of the warehousing business in India.
• WDRA operates as a statutory authority under the Department of Food and Public Distribution, with its headquarters located in New Delhi.
  • It is a statutory authority under the Department of Food and Public Distribution, Government of India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

• World Hearing Day (WHD) is celebrated on the 3^rd March each year to raise awareness on how to prevent deafness and hearing loss and promote ear and hearing care across the world. Statement 1 is correct.
• The theme of WHD 2024 is “Changing mindsets: Let's make ear and hearing care a reality for all”. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • "Hearing for life: Don't let hearing loss limit you" was the theme of World Hearing Day, 2020.
• Hence, option C is correct because Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

• Viscose Staple fiber (VSF), derived from wood or cotton pulp, is a semi-synthetic material possessing properties akin to cotton, offering versatility, breathability, and biodegradability. Hence, statement-I is correct.
• The implementation of a stringent Quality Control Order (QCO) pertaining to Viscose Staple Fibre (VSF) in India resulted in a 65% decrease in imports. Hence, statement-II is correct.

Hence, option B is correct because both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.

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