Current Affairs Quiz (July 2024) Part-I (Date : 18-07-2024)

Correct Answer : B

Explanation

Ariane Rocket:

• Ariane is a series of European civilian expendable launch vehicles used by the European Space Agency.
• The Ariane launch site is in Kourou, French Guiana, just 5 degrees north of the Equator.
• Ariane 6 is the latest in Europe's Ariane rocket series that can launch missions farther out into deep space.

Hence, option B is correct.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

• Glacial periods are characterised as colder, dustier, and generally drier compared to interglacial periods. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Advances and retreats of glaciers, the sediment deposits and the rings in the trees provide clues about wet and dry periods. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• When the number of sunspots increase, cooler and wetter weather and greater storminess occur. A decrease in sunspot numbers is associated with warm and drier conditions. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

• The International Maritime Organisation (IMO) is a specialised agency of the United Nations (UN). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The IMO is not responsible for enforcing its policies. There is no enforcement mechanism to implement the policies of the IMO. The enforcement of IMO conventions depends upon the Governments of Member Parties. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• It is also involved in legal matters, including liability and compensation issues and the facilitation of international maritime traffic. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

Climate Resilient Agriculture (CRA):

• Climate Resilient Agriculture (CRA) is an approach that sustainably uses natural resources in crop and livestock production to achieve long-term higher productivity and farm incomes despite climate variability.
• Following are the climate resilient agriculture practices can help reduce hunger and poverty in the face of climate change:
  • Agroforestry: It involves the cultivation of trees along with crops.
  • Soil and Water Conservation: Techniques such as contour bunding, farm ponds and check dams can help to improve soil moisture retention, reduce soil erosion, and increase groundwater recharge.
  • Crop diversification: It helps reduce the risk of crop failures due to pests, diseases, or adverse weather.
  • Mixed cropping: It increases productivity and provides food security for the farmer.

Hence, option D is correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

Jagannath Temple, Puri:

• Jagannath Temple in Puri, Odisha was constructed during the reign of the Ganga Dynasty by Anantavarman Chodaganga in the 12th century. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It is an example of Kalinga architecture, featuring distinctive curvilinear towers, intricate carvings and ornate sculptures. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It is known as the “White Pagoda” and is one of the chardhams, four of the most sacred pilgrimage sites for Hindus. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

• FAME India scheme's main objective is to encourage the adoption of electric and hybrid vehicles by offering upfront incentives on purchase. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Phase I of FAME India was started in 2015 and was completed on 31st March 2019 and had four focus areas namely, technology development, demand creation, pilot project, and charging infrastructure.Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• FAME India is an initiative of the Ministry of Heavy Industries. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

• One Health is an approach that recognizes that the health of people is closely connected to the health of animals and our shared environment. It is an integrated disease control approach against priority diseases of both human and animal sectors. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It is a quadripartite initiative of -the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), the World Health Organization (WHO), and the World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH, founded as OIE). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

• Under Section 79(2)(b) of of IT Act, 2000, to avail the safe harbor protection, the intermediary must fulfill conditions, such as:
  • It should observe due diligence while discharging their duties. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • It should not initiate the transmission, select the receiver of transmission or modify the information contained in the transmission. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• It should comply with the directions of the government such as Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code, 2021 or court orders.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

Green Funds

• Green Funds, also known as sustainable or eco-friendly funds, are investment vehicles that primarily focus on companies and projects that promote environmental sustainability.Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• They aim to generate competitive financial returns while contributing to global efforts to combat climate change, conserve natural resources, and promote sustainable development. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Green Climate Fund was created by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in 2010 to support a paradigm shift in the global response to climate change. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

Priority Sector Lending (PSL)

• PSL mandates banks to allocate a minimum proportion of their loans to development sectors or sectors facing difficulty in obtaining loans. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Regional Rural Banks and Small Finance Banks have to allocate 75% of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) for PSL. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA):

• National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body formed under provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It was established in 2005 following the recommendations of the Tiger Task Force. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

• The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) was established in 1916 and has its genesis in the establishment of the Zoological Section of the Indian Museum at Calcutta in 1875. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• It has its headquarters at Kolkata and 16 regional stations located in different geographic locations of the country. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• It is a premier research organisation functioning under the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

Land Degradation Neutrality:

• United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCED) is one of the three Rio Conventions adopted at the Earth Summit 1992 along with United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) and Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Sustainable Development Goal 15 (Life on Land) calls for the protection, restoration and sustainable management of land-based ecosystems. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• India aims to restore 26 million hectares of degraded land by 2030. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

• Industrially produced Trans Fat Elimination (TFA) is identified as a major contributor to heart disease. TFA offers no nutritional benefits and is detrimental to public health.
• WHO initiated a Validation Programme to recognise countries achieving TFA elimination goals. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Denmark, Lithuania, Poland, Saudi Arabia, and Thailand were the first to receive the TFA Validation Certificate. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• WHO recommends all countries enact and enforce best-practice policies, engage in the Validation Programme, and encourage companies to reformulate products to eliminate TFA globally.
  • Implementing best practice policies in just eight additional countries, (including Azerbaijan and China) would eliminate 90% of the global TFA burden.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

High Seas Treaty

• It is formally called the Agreement on Conservation and Sustainable Use of Marine Biological Diversity of Areas Beyond National Jurisdiction. In short, known as BBJN or High Seas Treaty. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It is a new international legal framework under UNCLOS for maintaining the ecological health of the oceans.
• The treaty was negotiated in 2023 and is meant to reduce pollution, and promote the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity and other marine resources in ocean waters outside the national jurisdiction of any country. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

Entities Related to Cooperative Sector in India:

• Indian Famine Commission (1901) led to the enactment of the first Cooperative Credit Societies Act in 1904 followed by the (amended) Cooperative Societies Act, 1912.
• In 1915, a committee headed by Sir Edward Maclagan, was appointed to study and report whether the cooperative movement was proceeding on economically and financially sound lines.
• Through the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919, co-operation became a provincial subject which gave further impetus to the movement.
• Union Ministry of Cooperation (2021) assumed responsibility for cooperative affairs, previously overseen by the Ministry of Agriculture.
  • The correct order is 1-2-4-3.
• Hence, option A is correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

• The Financial Stability Report (FSR) is a biannual publication by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
• It reflects the collective assessment of the Sub-Committee of the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC), which is headed by the Governor of the RBI.
• The Global Financial Stability Report is published by the International Monetary Fund.

Hence, option C is correct.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

• U. K. Sinha Committee was constituted by the RBI to study the problems faced by MSMEs. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• MSMEs currently contribute approximately 30% to India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP), playing a crucial role in driving economic growth. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• MSME Sambandh portal is to monitor the implementation of the public procurement from MSMEs by Central Public Sector Enterprises. However, MSME Samadhaan portal is a grievance redressal portal for MSMEs. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

Arabian Peninsula:

• Arabian Peninsula is situated in the Northeast of Africa on the Arabian plate. It is the largest peninsula on the earth.
• Yemen, Oman, Qatar, Bahrain, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, UAE, and parts of Jordan and Iraq form a part of the Arabian Peninsula.
• It is believed to have formed by the drifting of the Red Sea.

Hence, option A is correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) Agreement:

• Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) Agreement is an international legally binding treaty under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It aims to address the growing concerns over the long-term protection of marine biodiversity in the high seas. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • High Seas are parts of the sea that are not included in the territorial waters or the internal waters of a country are known as the high seas.
• It aims at achieving Sustainable Development Goal 14 which deals with Life Below Water. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

• President Vladimir Putin conferred Russia's highest civilian honour, the "Order of Saint Andrew the Apostle," on Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
• The Order of Saint Andrew the Apostle was established by Tsar Peter the Great in 1698 and reinstated in 1998. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The award is named after Saint Andrew, the patron saint of Russia and Scotland, known for spreading Christianity across Europe and Asia.
• It is featuring a double-headed eagle emblem and a light blue silk moire ribbon. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

Classical Languages

• About:
  • In 2004, the Government of India decided to create a new category of languages called “classical languages”.
  • In 2006, it laid down the criteria for conferring classical language status. So far, the 6 languages are granted classical language status.
• Criteria:
  • High antiquity of early texts/recorded history spanning 1,500–2,000 years. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Possession of a body of ancient literature/texts considered valuable heritage by generations. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Presence of an original literary tradition not borrowed from another speech community. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there can also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

Ramakrishna Mission:

• Ramakrishna Mission carries out extensive educational and philanthropic work and expounds a modern version of Advaita Vedanta—a school of Indian philosophy. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• ATMANO MOKSHARTHAM JAGAD HITAYA CHA” (“For one’s own salvation and for the welfare of the world”) was the motto of this mission. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The organizations were brought into existence by Sri Ramakrishna (1836-1886), the great 19^th-century saint from Bengal who is regarded as the Prophet of the Modern Age, and Sri Ramakrishna’s chief disciple, Swami Vivekananda (1863-1902).

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

• The Government of India started the Biosphere Reserve scheme in 1986. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• This is guided by the UNESCO MAB programme, as India is a signatory to the landscape approach supported by MAB. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The State Government prepares the Management Action Plan for the biosphere reserves, which is then approved and monitored by the Central MAB Committee. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

• Cabinet Committees are extra-constitutional in emergence, they find no mention in the constitution. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It is set up by the Prime Minister according to the need of time and requirement. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs is chaired by the Prime Minister of India. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

• As per definition of the Code on Social Security 2020, a gig worker is a person who performs work or participates in a gig work arrangement and earns from such activities outside of traditional employer-employee relationship. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Code on Wages, 2019, provides for universal minimum wage and floor wage across organised and unorganised sectors, including gig workers. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Karnataka has become the second state after Rajasthan to come up with legislation for gig workers in India. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

• Medical Council of India (MCI) was established in 1934 under the Indian Medical Council Act, 1933 with the main function of establishing uniform standards of higher qualifications in medicine and recognition of medical qualifications in India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• MCI was replaced by the National Medical Commission (NMC) that came into existence on 8th August 2019. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

• Shyama Prasad Mukherjee was born in a Bengali Brahmin family on the 6th July 1901, in Calcutta.
• He started "Bang Wani", a Bengali journal, in 1922 and The Nationalist in 1940’s. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• He was an Indian politician, barrister, and academician who served as the Minister for Industry and Supply in Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru's cabinet. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• At the age of 33, Shyama Prasad Mukherjee became the youngest vice-chancellor of Calcutta University in 1934.
• He demanded the partition of Bengal in 1946 to prevent the inclusion of its Hindu-majority areas in a Muslim-dominated East Pakistan.
• He also opposed a failed bid for a united but independent Bengal made in 1947 by Sarat Bose, the brother of Subhas Chandra Bose, and Huseyn Shaheed Suhrawardy, a Bengali Muslim politician.
• He founded the Bharatiya Jana Sangh (BJS), the predecessor of the modern-day Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).
• He died in mysterious circumstances during detention in 1953 while protesting against the special status given to Kashmir.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

Gallantry Awards:

• Post-independence, Param Vir Chakra, Maha Vir Chakra and Vir Chakra were instituted by the Government of India on 26^th January, 1950 which were deemed to have effect from the 15^th August, 1947. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Ashoka Chakra Class-I, Ashoka Chakra Class-II and Ashoka Chakra Class-III were instituted by the Government of India on 4^th January, 1952. These awards were renamed as Ashoka Chakra, Kirti Chakra and Shaurya Chakra respectively in January, 1967. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Gallantry awards are announced twice in a year, first on the occasion of the Republic Day and then on the occasion of the Independence Day. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

Balance of Payment (BOP)

• The balance of payments of a country is the difference between all money flowing into the country in a particular period of time and the outflow of money to the rest of the world. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• A BoP deficit occurs when a country's expenditures on imports and external obligations exceed its earnings from exports, services, and investments. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The current account includes trade of goods and services, while the capital account captures investments like Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investments (FII), critical for economic growth and stability. It includes factors such as commercial borrowings, banking, investments, loans, and capital flows. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

Cognitive Test

• The cognitive test evaluates mental function and how the brain processes thoughts by asking basic questions and having individuals perform simple tasks. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It can be used to diagnose conditions like dementia, or pseudo-dementia. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Common cognitive screening tests include the Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA), which tests memory, naming, and shape copying, the Mini-Mental State Exam (MMSE) involving counting, object identification, and date recall, and the Mini-Cog, which assesses memory, clock drawing, and time addition. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

• Groynes are low-lying wood or concrete structures which are situated out to sea from the shore.
  • They are designed to trap sediment, dissipate wave energy, and restrict the transfer of sediment away from the beach through longshore drift.
    • Longshore drift is caused when prevailing winds blow waves across the shore at an angle that carries sediment along the beach.
• Groynes slow the process of erosion at the shore.
  • They can also be permeable or impermeable, permeable groynes allow some sediment to pass through and some longshore drift to take place.

Hence, option A is correct.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

Nanoparticles

• Nanoparticle size ranges between 1 to 100 nanometres. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• These can be used in the manufacture of scratch proof eyeglasses, crack- resistant paints, anti-graffiti coatings for walls and stain-repellent fabrics. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Nanoparticles are responsible for the formation of dust clouds, Ozone depletion, environmental hydroxyl radical concentration, and stratospheric temperature changes. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

Joint Exercises:

• Exercise Mitra Shakti joint military exercise between India and Sri Lanka. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Exercise Maitree is a joint military exercise between the Indian Army and the Royal Thailand Army. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Exercise Sampriti is a bilateral defense cooperation exercise between the armies of India and Bangladesh. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

Hence, option D is correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

Fundamental Rights:

• They are not sacrosanct or permanent and subject to being curtailed or repealed by Parliament, and they are understood as qualified rather than absolute. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The rights can be suspended during the operation of a National Emergency except the rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The rights are justiciable and allow persons to move the courts for their enforcement, if and when they are violated.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

Asian Development Bank:

• About:
  • Established in 1966, ADB is a regional development bank that envisions a prosperous, inclusive, resilient, and sustainable Asia and the Pacific while sustaining its efforts to eradicate extreme poverty in the region.
  • ADB supports its members and partners through the provision of loans, technical assistance, grants, and equity investments aimed at advancing social and economic development. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Headquarters: Manila, Philippines
• Members: It currently has 68 members of which 49 are from within Asia and the Pacific and 19 outside.
• ADB and India: India is a founding member of ADB and the bank’s fourth-largest shareholder. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

Deep Brain Stimulation (DBS):

• It involves implanting a medical device with electrodes that deliver mild electrical currents to specific brain regions linked to seizures. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • DBS is considered for patients with medication-resistant epilepsy, where traditional medications haven't controlled seizures. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Unlike surgery that removes brain tissue, DBS offers a more targeted approach with potentially fewer side effects.
• Epilepsy is a central nervous system (neurological) disorder in which brain activity becomes abnormal, causing seizures or periods of unusual behaviour, sensations, and sometimes loss of awareness.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA)

• CCPA is the regulatory body established under Section 10 of the Consumer Protection Act (CPA), 2019. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It has the power to investigate violations of consumer rights or unfair trade practices either upon receiving complaints, suo-moto or as directed by the Central Government. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It operates under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

Borneo Elephants

• Recently, Borneo elephants (Elephas maximus Borneensis) have been classified as 'Endangered' on the IUCN Red List. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It is a subspecies of the Asian elephant (Elephas maximus) that is native to the island of Borneo and are primarily located in Sabah, Malaysia and Kalimantan, Indonesia. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• They are herbivores, and live in family groups led by a matriarch and typically found near water sources such as rivers.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

Facial Recognition Technology (FRT)

• It is an algorithm-based technology which creates a digital map of the face by identifying and mapping an individual’s facial features and matching with the database. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• This technology has multiple uses such as in mobile phones, at airports, by law enforcement agencies, banking etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Currently, there is an absence of any legal framework present to regulate the use of FRT in India.Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs):

• As per the revised definition (2020), a micro manufacturing unit has an investment in plant and machinery up to Rs 1 crore. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• All loans provided by banks to MSMEs are classified under the priority sector lending, making them eligible for easier access to credit at relatively lower interest rates. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The MSME sector is the largest employment provider in India, contributing significantly to job creation and inclusive growth. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

Financial Action Task Force (FATF)'s objectives:

• Initially, its objective was to examine and develop measures to combat money laundering (1989).
• After the 9/11 attacks on the US, the FATF in 2001 expanded its mandate to incorporate efforts to combat terrorist financing.
• In April 2012, it added efforts to counter the financing of proliferation of Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD).

Hence, option C is correct.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

National Security Council:

• It was established as India's foremost authority for national security management, following nuclear tests by India and Pakistan. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It operates under a three-tier structure i.e. Strategic Policy Group (SPG), National Security Advisory Board (NSAB) and National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Before the formation of the NSC, the functions related to national security were carried out by the Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

• Certificates of Deposit (CDs) is a negotiable, unsecured money market instrument offered by banks and credit unions that pays a fixed interest rate on money held in banks for an agreed-upon period. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• A minimum amount of a CD should be Rs.1 lakh and thereafter permits multiples of it. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The maturity period of CDs issued by banks ranges from 7 days to one year, while for All-India Financial Institutions this limit is from 1 year to upto 3 years from the date of issue. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

About Polio:

• It is a highly infectious viral disease that enters the body through the mouth, multiplying in the intestine before invading the nervous system. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Jonas Salk developed the first successful polio vaccine by inactivating the poliovirus and injecting it into test subjects. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• India was declared polio-free by the WHO in 2014, following three consecutive years with no reported cases. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

• Abhay Mudra is a hand gesture commonly depicted in Buddhist and Hindu iconography, representing the "gesture of fearlessness". Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • It is typically formed with the palm of the right hand facing outward at shoulder height, with the fingers pointing upwards.
• It is associated with the Lord Buddha immediately after he attained enlightenment, portraying a sense of the security, serenity, and compassion that derive from enlightenment".
• The Abhaya Mudra is also found in the iconography of other religious traditions, including Christianity and Jainism. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

• Macaulay's Minute of 1835 recommended making English the medium of instruction in Indian education. It argued that English was the language of the ruling class, key to modern knowledge, and would spark a renaissance in India.
• Wood's Despatch of 1854 was a comprehensive plan for expanding education in India that established several important policies.
  • Both are linked to reforms in the field of education.
• Hence, option C is correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

Codex Alimentarius:

• The Codex Alimentarius is a collection of internationally adopted food standards.
• It outlines international food standards, guidelines and codes of practice that contribute to the safety, quality and fairness of this international food trade.
• It includes standards for all the principal foods, whether processed, semi-processed or raw, for distribution to the consumer.

Hence, option B is correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

Windfall Tax:

• Windfall Tax is a one-time tax that is imposed on entities that have made huge profits due to external factors. Hence, statement I is correct.
• However, it must be noted that the Government can only levy the windfall tax if a company experiences a sudden surge in profits due to external factors.
  • If a company earns profits due to a planned strategy, then no windfall tax can be levied. Hence, statement II is correct.

Hence, option B is correct because both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

Digital India:

• Digital India was launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) with the vision to transform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge-based economy. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Digital India has 9 Pillars.
  • It includes Broadband Highways, Universal Access to Mobile Connectivity, Public Internet Access, e-Governance, eKranti, Information for All, Electronics Manufacturing, IT for Jobs, and Early Harvest Program. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

Nanocomposite:

• A new metal oxide nanocomposite has been developed by researchers at the Institute of Advanced Study in Science and Technology (IASST) that can be used as sustainable technologies for cleaning up the environment.
• The nanocomposite is a combination of two or more materials, of which at least one is a nanomaterial. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Nanocomposite can be used in catalysis, energy storage, sensors, optoelectronics, biomedical fields, coatings, and renewable energy production. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Institute of Advanced Study in Science and Technology (IASST), located in Guwahati, is an autonomous institution of the Department of Science and Technology (DST).

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

Steel Slag:

• Steel slag is rich in metal oxides and other useful minerals that can be upcycled into valuable end-products and minimizing waste. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It hardens when it reacts with water, with a hydraulic property that provides increasing strength over time.
• Because of its large load-bearing capacity, it is used in road base course material in the same way as gravel. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

Operation Gibraltar:

• Launched in August 1965, Operation Gibraltar was a covert Pakistan-backed guerrilla attack that aimed to draw on anti-Indian sentiment and foment a rebellion against the Indian government in Kashmir.
• It was designed to infiltrate several columns of trained and well-armed Mujahideen and Razakars, led by Pakistan Army Majors into Jammu and Kashmir.
• This signaled the start of hostilities and eventually resulted in a full-scale war.

Hence, option B is correct.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

• The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) has been established as provided in section 10 of The Consumer Protection Act, 2019. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) operates under the Department of Consumer Affairs. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• CCPA can impose penalties of up to 10 lakh rupees on manufacturers, advertisers, and endorsers for misleading advertisements.For subsequent violations, the penalty can be up to 50 lakh rupees. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
• The Authority can also prohibit the endorser of a misleading advertisement from making any endorsements for up to 1 year, and for subsequent violations, the prohibition can extend up to 3 years.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

Gharials:

• According to the IUCN’s Red List the Gharial is Critically Endangered. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Gharials were widely distributed in the Brahmaputra, Ganga, Indus, and the Mahanadi-Brahmani-Baitarani river systems of India, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Nepal, and Pakistan. Currently, their major populations occur in three tributaries of the Ganga (the Chambal and Girwa in India, and the Rapti-Narayani river in Nepal). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The bony bump on the snout is a distinctive feature of gharials. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

• National Statistics Day was celebrated on 29^th June 2024 marking the birth anniversary of Professor Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis, a renowned Indian statistician and applied scientist. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The theme for Statistics Day 2024 is "Use of Data for Decision-Making".
• This day has been celebrated since 2007 to create public awareness of the role and importance of statistics in socio-economic planning and policy formulation for the development of the country.
• The e-Sankhyiki data portal and Central Data Repository were launched on this day.
• Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis was known for pioneering the Mahalanobis distance and statistical measure.
  • He was a member of India’s inaugural Planning Commission and was instrumental in establishing the Indian Statistical Institute (ISI) in 1931.
  • He was honoured with the Padma Vibhushan for his contribution to science.
  • Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

• Araku Coffee is grown in the Araku Valley in Alluri SitaRam Raju district of Andhra Pradesh, located in the Eastern Ghats. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • This coffee has a distinct flavour with notes of chocolate, caramel, and subtle fruity acidity.
• It is grown in a diverse agroforestry system, primarily cultivated using organic farming methods.
• It is grown by tribal farmers and cooperatives and helps in promoting sustainable livelihoods and community empowerment.
• Araku Coffee has received international awards, including the "Best Robusta" at the Café de Colombia Competition.
• It received a Geographical Indication (GI) Tag in 2019 for its unique qualities.
  • Other Indian coffees that received GI Tag include Coorg Arabica, Wayanad Robusta, Chikmagalur Arabica, Bababudangiris Arabica from Karnataka, and Monsooned Malabar Robusta from Kerala. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

Project Nexus:

• Project Nexus is conceptualized by the Innovation Hub of the Bank for International Settlements (BIS). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• It seeks to enhance cross-border payments by connecting multiple domestic instant payment systems (IPS) globally. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• An agreement on this was signed by the BIS and the central banks of the founding countries i.e.,Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand and Reserve Bank of India on June 30, 2024, in Basel, Switzerland.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

Puducherry:

• The present union territory of Puducherry was formed in 1962 out of the four former colonies of French (Puducherry, Karaikal, Mahe and Yanam) India.
• The Puducherry and Karaikal regions are surrounded by the state of Tamilnadu while Mahe is surrounded by the state of Kerala and Yanam by the state of Andhra Pradesh. Hence, pairs 1, 2 and 3 are correctly matched.
• To accommodate the diverse culture, due to its multi-state location, Puducherry has been recognized as a Union Territory.

Hence, option D is correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

Front-running:

• Front-running, also known as tailgating, is a form of market manipulation.
• It is the trading in a stock or financial instrument by a broker, dealer or employee who has inside information about a future transaction that would affect its price.
• Front-running is considered an unethical practice because brokers or dealers trade in an equity based on information before it is provided to their clients.
• A fund manager/broker buys or sells securities in advance of a substantial order, or takes a futures or options position on an impending transaction in the same or related futures or options contract.

Hence, option C is correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

• Recently, India submitted two applications for exploration in the international seabed area of the Indian Ocean.
  • Polymetallic sulfides in the Indian Ocean Ridge (Carlsberg Ridge). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Cobalt-rich ferromanganese crusts of the Afanasy-Nikitin Seamount in the Central Indian Ocean. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Currently, India holds two contracts for exploration in the Indian Ocean.
  • Polymetallic nodules and sulfides in the Central Indian Ocean Basin and Ridge.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

• A currency swap agreement between two countries is a contract to exchange currencies with predetermined terms and conditions for liquidity support.
  • Central banks and Governments engage in currency swaps with foreign counterparts to meet short-term foreign exchange liquidity requirements or to ensure adequate foreign currency to avoid the Balance of Payments (BOP) crisis till longer arrangements can be made. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• These swap operations carry no exchange rate or other market risks as transaction terms are set in advance. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The RBI can offer a swap arrangement within the overall corpus of USD 2 billion. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
  • The swap can be made in US dollars, euro or Indian rupees. The framework provides certain concessions for swap in the Indian rupee.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

• REPLACE framework of WHO provides six strategic actions to ensure the prompt, complete, and sustained elimination of industrially-produced trans fats from the food supply:
  • Review dietary sources of industrially-produced trans fats and the landscape for required policy change.
  • Promote the replacement of industrially-produced trans fats with healthier fats and oils.
  • Legislate or enact regulatory actions to eliminate industrially-produced trans fats.
  • Assess and monitor trans fats content in the food supply and changes in trans fat consumption in the population.
  • Create awareness of the negative health impact of trans fats among policymakers, producers, suppliers, and the public.
  • Enforce compliance of policies and regulations.

Hence, option C is correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

• Himalayan serow ( a subspecies of mainland serow) are typically found at altitudes between 2,000 metres and 4,000 metres. They are known to be found in eastern, central, and western Himalayas, but not in the Trans Himalayan region. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Himalayan serow is under the vulnerable category of IUCN Red list. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The mainland serow’s habitat is across the India-Bhutan border in Phibsoo Wildlife Sanctuary and the Royal Manas National Park in Bhutan. Recently, the Assam Forest Department and conservationists have documented the first photographic evidence of the Mainland Serow (Capricornis sumatraensis thar), in western Assam’s Raimona National Park. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

Indian Eagle-Owl:

• Indian Eagle-Owl is also called the Rock Eagle-Owl or Bengal Eagle-Owl.
• It is a large horned owl species native to hilly and rocky scrub forests in the Indian Subcontinent. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It was earlier treated as a subspecies of the Eurasian eagle-owl. It was classified as a separate species only in recent years. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It is usually seen in pairs. It has a deep resonant booming call that may be heard at dawn and dusk.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

Bhimbetka Rock Shelters:

• Bhimbetka rock shelters are an archaeological site in Madhya Pradesh that spans the prehistoric Paleolithic and Mesolithic periods. It exhibits the earliest traces of human life in India and evidence of stone age. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• They are in the foothills of the Vindhyan Mountains on the southern edge of the central Indian plateau. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The shelters were designated a UNESCO World Heritage site in 2003. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

SEHER Program:

• The Women Entrepreneurship Platform (WEP) and TransUnion CIBIL launched the SEHER program to empower women entrepreneurs in India. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• It is a comprehensive credit education program designed to enhance financial literacy and business skills among women entrepreneurs.
• This initiative is expected to enable women to access the financial tools necessary for business growth and job creation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

• Magma is the term used to denote the molten rocks and related materials seen inside the earth. A weaker zone of the mantle called the asthenosphere, usually is the source of magma. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Lava is nothing but the magma above the earth surface. Once this magma came out to the earth surface through the vent of a volcano, it is called the Lava. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Volcanic eruptions at Mount Etna and Stromboli in Italy have caused the eruption of hot ash and lava from it. Both these are located on the island of Sicily. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

Lambayeque Region:

• Lambayeque is a coastal region in northwestern Peru.
• The region’s name originates from the ancient pre-Inca civilization of the Lambayeque, also called Sican culture.
• It is known for its rich Moche and Chimu historical past and related archeological sites and museums.

Hence, option A is correct.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

Self-reliance in Defense Sector:

• Following are the initiatives taken by government for achieving self-reliance in the defense sector:
  • Defence Acquisition Procedure 2020: It aims to maximize acquisition of defense equipment through indigenous sources and promote domestic manufacturing.
  • Positive Indigenisation Lists: It makes it compulsory for the Indian armed forces to procure listed items from either domestic private sector players or Defense PSUs.
  • Defense Corridors: They are dedicated regions or areas strategically planned to promote indigenous production of defense and aerospace-related items.
  • Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX): It aims to achieve self-reliance and foster innovation and technology development in defense and aerospace.

Hence, option D is correct.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

• Aphelion:
  • The aphelion is a natural consequence of Earth's elliptical orbit, which is a result of the gravitational interactions between the planets. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The Earth's perihelion and aphelion dates are not fixed due to variations in its orbit eccentricity. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • Aphelion refers to the point in Earth's orbit when it is farthest from the Sun, occurring around 3 to 6th July each year (According to NCERT, Aphelion is on 4th July).
  • Perihelion: At Perihelion, Earth is closest to the Sun, occurring around January 3 annually, with a distance of approximately 147.5 million kilometres.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

• Fungi:
  • They are eukaryotic organisms and their cells contain membrane-bound organelles and clearly defined nuclei. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • They are found in all temperate and tropical regions of the world where there is sufficient moisture to enable them to grow. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Fungi are found either on land or in water, freshwater fungi thrive in clean, cool water due to their sensitivity to high salinity levels. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

Particulate Matter (PM):

• These are extremely fine particulate matter (PM) particles, with the digits accompanying them referring to their diameter.
• So, PM 10 and PM 2.5 are smaller than 10 and 2.5 microns in their diameter, respectively. One micron is about a thousandth of a millimeter and this tiny size has a role to play in how they impact human health.
  • The finer the particles are, the more difficult it gets to protect oneself from them.
• Due to their size, the PM 2.5 particles can easily bypass the nose and throat and can enter the circulatory system. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The safe limit recommended by the World Health Organisation (WHO) for PM2.5 is 15 μg/m³. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

Samayapuram temple:

• The temple located in Tiruchirapalli, Tamil Nadu is over 1,200 years old. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It is associated with legends of Goddess Mariamman, believed to be an incarnation of Goddess Durga, Mahakali, Adi Shakti, or Nishumbha Sudhini. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

• German KF51 Panther, the American Abrams M1A2, and Indian Zorawar are tanks.
  • The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has unveiled the prototype of India's indigenous light tank, Zorawar, which is set to undergo extensive trials.
  • It was jointly developed by DRDO and Larsen & Toubro (L&T) with contributions from various Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises.

Hence, option B is correct.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme:

• Launched in March 2020 the PLI scheme was conceived to scale up domestic manufacturing capability, accompanied by higher import substitution and employment generation. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The scheme initially targeted three industries namely Mobile and allied Component Manufacturing, Electrical Component Manufacturing and Medical Devices. Later, it was extended to 14 sectors. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• In the PLI scheme, Domestic and Foreign companies receive financial rewards for manufacturing in India, based on a percentage of their revenue over up to five years. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

Axiom-4 Mission:

• Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4) is the fourth private astronaut mission to the International Space Station (ISS).
• It is expected to spend up to 14 days docked to the space station.
• It is scheduled to be launched in August 2024 from Kennedy Space Center in Florida.
• The ISS is a large, permanently crewed laboratory that orbits Earth, 400 kilometers above earth’s surface.

Hence, option B is correct.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

• India International Bullion Exchange (IIBX) was first announced in the Union Budget 2020-21 for easing the Gold Import by Jewellers in India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It is a platform that not only enrols jewellers to trade on the exchange, but has also set up necessary infrastructure to store physical gold and silver.
• IIBX will facilitate efficient price discovery with the assurance of responsible sourcing and quality, apart from giving impetus to the financialisation of gold in India.
• International Financial Services Centers Authority (IFSCA) is entrusted with notifying the eligible qualified jewellers in India for directly importing gold through IIBX. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

Net-Zero Target

• Net Zero refers to achieving an overall balance between carbon emissions produced and carbon taken out of the atmosphere. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • It is referred to as carbon neutrality, which does not mean that a country would bring down its emissions to zero.
  • Further, absorption of the emissions can be increased by creating more carbon sinks such as forests.
    • The removal of gases from the atmosphere requires futuristic technologies such as carbon capture and storage.
• More than 70 countries have promised to become Net Zero by 2050.
  To meet the Paris Agreement's goal of limiting global warming to 1.5°C, emissions must be reduced by 45% by 2030 and reach net zero by 2050. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

Foreign Direct Investment:

• Under the automatic route, the foreign entity does not require the prior approval of the government or the RBI (Reserve Bank of India). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Under the government route, the foreign entity has to take the approval of the government. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• It is different from Foreign Portfolio Investment where the foreign entity merely buys stocks and bonds of a company. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

• It is a quasi-legislative and quasi-judicial body that can draft regulations, conduct inquiries, and impose penalties. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It is similar to the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) and aims to safeguard investor interests and foster the development of the securities market. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It functions to fulfil the requirements of three categories:
  • Issuers: By providing a marketplace in which the issuers can increase their finance.
  • Investors: By ensuring the safety and supply of precise and accurate information.
  • Intermediaries: By enabling a competitive professional market for

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Correct Answer : B

Explanation

National Human Rights Commission (NHRC):

• Chairman and members of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) appointed by the President on the recommendations of a six-member committee. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The committee consists of the Prime Minister, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, leaders of the Opposition in both Houses of Parliament, and the Union Home Minister. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The NHRC lacks the authority to punish the accused person.
• Despite identifying perpetrators of human rights abuses, the NHRC cannot directly impose penalties or award relief to victims. This limitation undermines its effectiveness

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Correct Answer : C

Explanation

Santhal Hul of 1855:

• The Santhal Hul of 1855 was one of the earliest peasant uprisings against British colonial rule in India.
• It was led by four brothers namely Sidho, Kanho, Chand and Bhairav Murmu, along with sisters Phulo and Jhano. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• This uprising led to the enactment of the Santhal Pargana Tenancy Act, 1876. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Santhal Pargana was formed from the districts of Bhagalpur and Birbhum after the Santhal Revolt of 1855. The pargana was supposed to have its own set of laws. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Correct Answer : D

Explanation

Sampoornata Abhiyan:

• It is a 3-month long campaign launched by the NITI Aayog. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• It has been launched with a focus to attain saturation in 12 key social sector indicators in 500 aspirational blocks and 112 aspirational districts. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• It focuses on themes such as health, nutrition, agriculture, social development and education.

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Correct Answer : A

Explanation

Artificial Intelligence Preparedness Index (AIPI):

• The International Monetary Fund (IMF) has launched the Artificial Intelligence Preparedness Index (AIPI) to assess the level of AI preparedness across 174 countries.
• It assesses the level of AI preparedness based on a rich set of macro-structural indicators that cover the countries’ digital infrastructure, human capital and labor market policies, innovation and economic integration, and regulation and ethics.

Hence, option A is correct.

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