Day 15 (25th November 2022) (Date : 25-11-2022)

Question 1:

Which of the following Union Territories have their own High court and does not share with any of the State/UTs?

Jammu & Kashmir
Delhi
Pondicherry
None of the Above

Correct Answer : B

Explanation

	Union Territories	Judiciary
1.	Andaman and Nicobar Islands	Calcutta High Court
2.	Chandigarh	Punjab and Haryana High Court
3.	UT of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu	Bombay High Court
4.	Delhi	Delhi High Court
5.	Lakshadweep	Kerala High Court
6.	Puducherry	Madras High Court
7.	Jammu and Kashmir	Jammu and Kashmir High Court
8.	Ladakh	Jammu and Kashmir High Court

The Parliament can establish a high court for a union territory or put it under the jurisdiction of the high court of adjacent state. Delhi is the only union territory that has a high court of its own (since 1966).
Although UT of Jammu and Kashmir has its high court, but this HC is equally shared by the UT of Ladakh. Hence, option B is correct.

Question 2:

Consider the following statements regarding Union Territories (UTs):

Their relationship with Centre is unitary.
There is uniformity in their administrative set-up.
They are under the direct control and administration of the Centre.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
1 and 3 only

Correct Answer : D

Explanation

Comparing States and Union Territories:

	States	Union Territories
1.	Their relationship with Centre is federal.	Their relationship with Centre is unitary. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
2.	They share a distribution of power with the Centre.	They are under the direct control and administration of the Centre. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
3.	They have autonomy.	They do not have any autonomy.
4.	There is uniformity in their administrative set-up.	There is no uniformity in their administrative set-up. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
5.	Their executive head is known as governor.	Their executive head is known by various designations–administrator or lieutenant governor or chief commissioner.
6.	A governor is a constitutional head of the state.	An administrator is an agent of the president.
7.	Parliament cannot make laws on the subjects of the state list in relation to the states except under extraordinary circumstances.	Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists the state list in relation to the states except under in relation to the union territories.

Question 3:

Consider the following statements regarding Fifth Schedule of the constitution of India:

President is empowered to declare or modify an area to be a scheduled area.
U.N. Dhebar and Dilip Singh Bhuria commission was appointed to report on the administration of the scheduled areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : C

Explanation

The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution:
- The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in any state except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
  - At present (2019), ten states of India have scheduled areas. These are: Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha and Rajasthan.
- Declaration of Scheduled Areas: The president is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area. He can also increase or decrease its area, alter its boundary lines, in consultation with the governor of the state concerned. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The Constitution requires the president to appoint a commission to report on the administration of the scheduled areas and the welfare of the scheduled tribes in the states.
  - President-appointed commissions like U.N. Dhebar (1960) & Dilip Singh Bhuria (2002). Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Question 4:

Consider the following statements regarding sixth schedule:

Under it, governor is empowered to organise and re-organise the autonomous districts.
Each autonomous district has a district council consisting of 30 members,
The president can appoint a commission to examine and report on any matter relating to the administration of the autonomous districts or regions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : A

Explanation

The various features of administration contained in the Sixth Schedule are as follows:
The tribal areas in the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram have been constituted as autonomous districts.
- The governor is empowered to organise and re-organise the autonomous districts. Thus, he can increase or decrease their areas or change their names or define their boundaries and so on. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Each autonomous district has a district council consisting of 30 members, of whom four are nominated by the governor and the remaining 26 are elected on the basis of adult franchise. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The governor can appoint a commission to examine and report on any matter relating to the administration of the autonomous districts or regions. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Question 5:

The acts of Parliament or the state legislature do not apply to autonomous districts and autonomous regions (under 6th schedule) or apply with specified modifications and exceptions. Power of direction, in this regard, lies with which of the following?

President
Governor
Either Governor or President
Parliament

Correct Answer : C

Explanation

The acts of Parliament or the state legislature do not apply to autonomous districts and autonomous regions or apply with specified modifications and exceptions.
- The power of direction, in this regard, lies either with the president or governor.
Thus, in the case of Assam, it lies with the Governor, both in respect of acts of Parliament or state legislature. In the case of Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram, it lies with the president in respect of acts of Parliament and governor in respect of acts of state legislature. Hence, option C is correct.

Question 6:

The Falkland Islands issue is a dispute between which of the two countries?

US and Cuba
UK and Argentina
Japan and North Korea
Russia and Norway

Correct Answer : B

Explanation

The British, in 1765, were the first to settle West Falkland, but they were driven off in 1770 by the Spanish, who had bought out the French settlement about 1767.
The British outpost on West Falkland was restored in 1771 after threat of war, but then the British withdrew from the island in 1774 for economic reasons, without renouncing their claim to the Falklands.
Spain maintained a settlement on East Falkland (which it called Soledad Island) until 1811.
In 1820 the Argentina Government, which had declared its independence from Spain in 1816, proclaimed its sovereignty over the Falklands.
After World War II (1939-45) the issue of sovereignty over the Falkland Islands shifted to the United Nations (UN) when, in 1964, the islands’ status was debated by the UN committee on decolonization.
In 1965, the UN General Assembly approved a resolution inviting Britain and Argentina to hold discussions to find a peaceful solution to the dispute.
These protracted discussions were still proceeding in February 1982, but in April Argentina’s military government invaded the Falklands.
This act started the Falkland Islands War, which ended 10 weeks later with the surrender of the Argentine forces at Stanley to British troops who had forcibly reoccupied the islands.
Although Britain and Argentina reestablished full diplomatic relations in 1990, the issue of sovereignty remained a point of contention.
- Hence, option B is correct.

Question 7:

Consider the following statements:

The Nai Roshni scheme is launched for leadership development of women belonging to minority communities.
The Nai Manzil scheme aims to preserve the rich heritage of traditional arts/crafts of minorities.
The Usttad scheme aims for formal skilling of school dropouts from minority communities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
1 and 2 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : A

Explanation

Nai Roshni-a Leadership Development Programme for Minority Women is a Central Sector Scheme for women belonging to minority communities in the age group of 18 to 65 years. It was started in 2012-13.
- The objective of the scheme is to empower and instill confidence among minority women, including their neighbours from other communities living in the same village/locality, by providing knowledge, tools and techniques for interacting with Government systems, banks and other institutions at all levels. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- It is run with the help of NGOs, Civil societies and Government Institutions all over the country.
The ‘Nai Manzil’ scheme aims to benefit the youth (both men & women) belonging to six notified minority communities of 17-35 years of age, who do not have formal school leaving certificate, i.e., those in the category of school –dropouts or educated in community education institutions like Madrasas. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Usttad (Upgrading the Skills and Training in Traditional Arts/Crafts for Development): The scheme aims to preserve the rich heritage of traditional arts/crafts of minorities. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Question 8:

Which of the following is/are the consequences of Marine Heatwaves?

Coral bleaching
Loss of kelp forests
Higher risk of ocean acidification

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : D

Explanation

Marine heatwaves are periods of extremely high temperatures in the ocean.
These events are linked to coral bleaching, seagrass destruction, and loss of kelp forests, affecting the fisheries sector adversely.
- Study showed that 85% of the corals in the Gulf of Mannar near the Tamil Nadu coast got bleached after the marine heatwave in May 2020.
The most common drivers of marine heatwaves include ocean currents which can build up areas of warm water and air-sea heat flux, or warming through the ocean surface from the atmosphere.
Impacts of Marine Heatwaves:
- Affect Ecosystem Structure: Marine heat waves affect ecosystem structure, by supporting certain species and suppressing others.
- Change Habitat Ranges of Certain Species: Marine heatwaves can change the habitat ranges of certain species, such as the spiny sea urchin off southeastern Australia which has been expanding southward into Tasmania at the expense of kelp forests which it feeds upon.
Affect Biodiversity: Biodiversity can be drastically affected by marine heatwaves.
Increase the Risk of Deoxygenation and Acidification: Often they occur alongside other stressors such as ocean acidification, deoxygenation, and overfishing.
- In such cases, MHWs not only further damage habitats, but also increase the risk of deoxygenation and acidification.
Hence, option D is correct.

Question 9:

Consider the following statements about the ‘Accelerate Vigyan’ scheme:

It is a program of the Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB).
It aims to provide a big push to high-end scientific research and prepare a scientific workforce.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : D

Explanation

Recently, the Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB), has invited applications under ‘ABHYAAS’, a program of ‘Accelerate Vigyan’ scheme, for summer season.
- SERB is an autonomous body of the Department of Science & Technology (DST), Union Ministry of Science & Technology. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- ABHYAAS is a program of AV scheme, is an attempt to boost research and development in the country by enabling and grooming potential postgraduate / PhD students by developing dedicated research skills in selected areas / disciplines / fields through its two components — high-end workshops (“KAARYASHALA”) and Training and Skill Internship (“VRITIKA”).
"Accelerate Vigyan" (AV) strives to provide a big push to high-end scientific research and prepare a scientific workforce, which can venture into research careers and a knowledge-based economy.
- AV aims to expand the research base in the country, with three broad goals — consolidation / aggregation of all scientific training programs, initiating high-end orientation workshops and creating opportunities for training and skill internships.
- Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Question 10:

Consider the following statements:

Crop diversification refers to the addition of new crops or cropping systems to agricultural production on a particular farm.
Crop Diversification is good for soil and can also provide enhanced crop productivity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : C

Explanation

Crop Diversification:

Crop diversification refers to the addition of new crops or cropping systems to agricultural production on a particular farm taking into account the different returns from value-added crops with complementary marketing opportunities. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Cropping System: It refers to the crops, crop sequences and management techniques used on a particular agricultural field over a period of years.
- Types: Major cropping systems in India are sequential-cropping, monocropping, intercropping, relay Cropping, mixed-cropping and alley cropping.
Many farmers also use the mixed crop-livestock system to increase their standards of living and income.
- Animal husbandry or Animal Agriculture is the branch of science dealing with the practice of breeding, farming and care of farm animals (livestocks) such as cattle, dogs, sheep and horses by humans for advantages.
- It refers to livestock raising and selective breeding. It is a branch of agriculture.
Crop Diversification is important to provide insect, weed, and disease control, build soil health, and has many other benefits such as enhanced crop productivity, environmental and economic benefits. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Planting rotations that involve cover crops can produce a large root system which holds the soil together by producing a new source of fresh organic matter after roots decay.
- This organic matter provides habitat suitable for earthworms which form tunnels in the soil for large soil pores, subsequently enhancing water infiltration. Organic matter also helps to form new soil aggregates, which is important because it holds the soil together and therefore prevents the risk of soil loss due to erosion during high intensity rainstorm events.